HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?
- A. blood transfusion
- B. chemotherapy
- C. bone marrow transplantation
- D. immunosuppressive therapy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the case of acquired aplastic anemia, bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of cure as it replaces the abnormal stem cells with healthy ones. Blood transfusion may provide temporary relief by replacing blood cells, but it does not address the root cause of the condition. Chemotherapy may be used in some cases, but it is not the preferred treatment for acquired aplastic anemia. While immunosuppressive therapy can be effective, especially in patients who are not candidates for a bone marrow transplant, it is not the first-line treatment and does not offer the same potential for a cure as bone marrow transplantation.
2. The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been wetting the bed since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Reassure the father that it is normal for a pre-teen to wet the bed during times of stress
- B. Inform the father that nocturnal emissions are abnormal and his son is developmentally delayed
- C. Inform the father that it is most important to let the son know that bedwetting is normal after trauma
- D. Refer the father and the client to a psychologist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: It is common for children to experience bedwetting as a response to severe trauma, such as losing a parent. Referring the father and the client to a psychologist is crucial in this situation to help the child cope with the loss and address any underlying emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect as bedwetting in this context is likely related to the trauma rather than puberty. Choice B is incorrect as nocturnal emissions are not abnormal and do not relate to bedwetting. Choice C is incorrect because the focus should be on addressing the emotional impact of the trauma rather than specifically discussing bedwetting.
3. The home health nurse cares for an alert and oriented older adult patient with a history of dehydration. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient related to fluid intake?
- A. Increase fluids if your mouth feels dry.
- B. More fluids are needed if you feel thirsty.
- C. Drink more fluids in the late evening hours.
- D. If you feel lethargic or confused, you need more to drink.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. An alert, older patient can self-assess for signs of dehydration like dry mouth. This instruction is appropriate as it encourages the patient to respond to early signs of dehydration. Choice B is incorrect because the thirst mechanism decreases with age and feeling thirsty may not accurately indicate the need for fluids. Choice C is incorrect as many older patients prefer to limit evening fluid intake to enhance sleep quality. Choice D is incorrect because an older adult who is lethargic or confused may not be able to accurately assess their need for fluids.
4. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
- B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
- C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
- D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.
5. A patient is receiving a 3% saline continuous IV infusion for hyponatremia. Which assessment data will require the most rapid response by the nurse?
- A. The patient’s radial pulse is 105 beats/minute.
- B. There is sediment and blood in the patient’s urine.
- C. The blood pressure increases from 120/80 to 142/94.
- D. There are crackles audible throughout both lung fields.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Crackles throughout both lungs suggest that the patient may be experiencing pulmonary edema, a life-threatening adverse effect of hypertonic solutions. The increased pulse rate and blood pressure and the presence of sediment and blood in the urine should also be reported, but they are not as immediately dangerous as the presence of fluid in the alveoli, which compromises gas exchange and can lead to respiratory failure.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access