Nursing Elites

1. A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?

• A. blood transfusion
• B. chemotherapy
• C. bone marrow transplantation
• D. immunosuppressive therapy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the case of acquired aplastic anemia, bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of cure as it replaces the abnormal stem cells with healthy ones. Blood transfusion may provide temporary relief by replacing blood cells, but it does not address the root cause of the condition. Chemotherapy may be used in some cases, but it is not the preferred treatment for acquired aplastic anemia. While immunosuppressive therapy can be effective, especially in patients who are not candidates for a bone marrow transplant, it is not the first-line treatment and does not offer the same potential for a cure as bone marrow transplantation.

2. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
• B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
• C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
• D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.

3. A patient has a serum calcium level of 7.0 mEq/L. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

• A. The patient is experiencing laryngeal stridor.
• B. The patient complains of generalized fatigue.
• C. The patient has not had a bowel movement for 4 days.
• D. The patient has numbness and tingling of the lips.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A - 'The patient is experiencing laryngeal stridor.' Hypocalcemia can cause laryngeal stridor, which may lead to respiratory arrest. Rapid action is required to correct the patient’s calcium level to prevent a life-threatening situation. Choices B, C, and D are also symptoms of hypocalcemia, but laryngeal stridor takes precedence due to its potential to quickly progress to a critical condition.

4. A patient has a parenteral nutrition infusion of 25% dextrose. A student nurse asks the nurse why a peripherally inserted central catheter was inserted. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. There is a decreased risk for infection when 25% dextrose is infused through a central line.
• B. The prescribed infusion can be given much more rapidly when the patient has a central line.
• C. The 25% dextrose is hypertonic and will be more rapidly diluted when given through a central line.
• D. The required blood glucose monitoring is more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 25% dextrose solution is hypertonic. Shrinkage of red blood cells can occur when solutions with dextrose concentrations greater than 10% are administered IV. Blood glucose testing is not more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line. The infection risk is higher with a central catheter than with peripheral IV lines. Hypertonic or concentrated IV solutions are not given rapidly.

5. A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question?

• A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr.
• B. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN.
• C. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea.
• D. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium decreases to less than 128 mEq/L.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr because the patient's gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, leading to hyponatremia. Therefore, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions like lactated Ringer’s solution would usually be ordered. The other choices (B, C, and D) are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction, addressing pain management, nausea control, and correcting hyponatremia if it drops below a certain level.

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