Nursing Elites

1. A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?

• A. blood transfusion
• B. chemotherapy
• C. bone marrow transplantation
• D. immunosuppressive therapy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the case of acquired aplastic anemia, bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of cure as it replaces the abnormal stem cells with healthy ones. Blood transfusion may provide temporary relief by replacing blood cells, but it does not address the root cause of the condition. Chemotherapy may be used in some cases, but it is not the preferred treatment for acquired aplastic anemia. While immunosuppressive therapy can be effective, especially in patients who are not candidates for a bone marrow transplant, it is not the first-line treatment and does not offer the same potential for a cure as bone marrow transplantation.

2. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. Patient with a serum potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L who is complaining of abdominal cramping
• B. Patient with a serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L who has a dry mouth and is asking for a glass of water
• C. Patient with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
• D. Patient with a serum phosphorus level of 4.5 mg/dL who has multiple soft tissue calcium-phosphate precipitates

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is patient C with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. The low magnesium level and neuromuscular irritability suggest that the patient may be at risk for seizures, which are life-threatening. Assessing and addressing this patient's condition promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Patients A, B, and D have mild electrolyte disturbances or symptoms that require attention, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications like seizures, unlike patient C.

3. A patient who had a transverse colectomy for diverticulosis 18 hours ago has nasogastric suction and is complaining of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient’s respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Discontinue the nasogastric suction.
• B. Give the patient the PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg.
• C. Notify the health care provider about the ABG results.
• D. Teach the patient how to take slow, deep breaths when anxious.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient’s respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurse’s first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. Although the nasogastric suction may contribute to the alkalosis, it is not appropriate to discontinue the tube when the patient needs gastric suction. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain.

4. An older adult patient who is malnourished presents to the emergency department with a serum protein level of 5.2 g/dL. The nurse would expect which clinical manifestation?

• A. Pallor
• B. Edema
• C. Confusion
• D. Restlessness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. The normal range for total protein is 6.4 to 8.3 g/dL. Low serum protein levels cause a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure and allow fluid to remain in interstitial tissues, causing edema. Confusion, restlessness, and pallor are not associated with low serum protein levels. Pallor is more commonly seen in anemia, confusion and restlessness may be related to other issues like electrolyte imbalances or neurological conditions.

5. When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased.
• B. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent.
• C. The patient has been sleeping most of the day.
• D. The patient reports feeling 'sick to my stomach.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of patellar and triceps reflexes indicates potential magnesium toxicity, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and lethargy are common side effects of elevated magnesium levels and should be reported, but they are not as critical as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. Decreased breath sounds suggest the need for coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis, which is important but not as urgent as addressing magnesium toxicity.

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