Nursing Elites

1. What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?

• A. Maintaining oxygen saturation above 92%
• B. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds
• C. Maintaining a balanced intake and output
• D. Absence of shortness of breath at rest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ideal goal of treatment for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema is to maintain a balanced intake and output. This helps in achieving optimal fluid balance, enabling the heart to eject blood effectively without increasing pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. While maintaining oxygen saturation above 92% is important for adequate tissue oxygenation, the primary focus in this scenario is fluid balance. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds is important to assess for pulmonary status, but it is not the primary goal to prevent pulmonary edema specifically. Similarly, absence of shortness of breath at rest is a relevant goal, but the emphasis in CKD management is on fluid balance to prevent pulmonary complications.

2. A client is being prepared for transfer to the operating room. Which of the following actions should the nurse take in the care of this client at this time?

• A. Ensuring that the client has voided
• B. Administering all daily medications
• C. Practicing postoperative breathing exercises
• D. Verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should ensure that the client has voided, especially if a Foley catheter is not in place. This step is important to prevent urinary retention during the surgical procedure. Administering all daily medications just before surgery is not standard practice. The physician typically provides specific orders regarding which medications can be taken with a sip of water before surgery. Postoperative breathing exercises are usually taught after surgery to prevent complications like atelectasis. Verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours is not a standard preoperative practice; instead, the client is usually instructed to fast for a specific period before surgery to reduce the risk of aspiration during anesthesia.

3. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic and reports anorexia and fatigue. The nurse suspects which electrolyte imbalance in this patient?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Anorexia and fatigue are common manifestations of hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (choice A) and hypocalcemia (choice B) are not directly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less likely than hypokalemia to be caused by thiazide diuretics.

4. A client is scheduled for a barium swallow (esophagography) in 2 days. The nurse, providing preprocedure instructions, should tell the client to:

• A. Eat a regular supper and breakfast
• B. Remove all metal and jewelry before the test
• C. Expect diarrhea for a few days after the procedure
• D. Take all oral medications as scheduled with milk on the day of the test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove all metal and jewelry before the test.' Before a barium swallow procedure, the client should fast for 8 to 12 hours to ensure the stomach and intestines are empty for optimal visualization. Removing all metal and jewelry is essential to prevent any interference with x-ray imaging. Choice A is incorrect because the client should fast, not eat supper and breakfast, before the test. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea is not an expected outcome of a barium swallow. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not take any oral medications with milk on the day of the test to ensure accurate test results.

5. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:

• A. Administer epinephrine.
• B. Inform the physician.
• C. Administer oxygen.
• D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.

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