Nursing Elites

1. Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?

• A. To broaden the antibacterial spectrum.
• B. To decrease bacterial resistance.
• C. To improve the taste.
• D. To minimize toxic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a 7-year-old patient who will receive oral antibiotics. Which antibiotic order will the healthcare provider question for this patient?

• A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
• B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• C. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
• D. Tetracycline (Sumycin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tetracycline (Sumycin). Tetracyclines should not be given to children younger than 8 years of age because they irreversibly discolor the permanent teeth. Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, and Clindamycin are antibiotics that are generally safe for use in children and do not have the same tooth discoloration side effect as Tetracycline. Therefore, these antibiotics would be more appropriate choices for a 7-year-old patient.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 62, PaCO2 59, and HCO3. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both the PaO2 and the PaCO2?

• A. The hypercapnia resulted from the rapid respirations.
• B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
• C. The client had a pneumothorax which restricted ventilation.
• D. The client had a pulmonary embolism that reduced perfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with COPD, oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive, which is the primary stimulus for breathing in these individuals. By providing supplemental oxygen, the hypoxic drive is diminished, resulting in decreased respiratory effort. As a consequence, the PaO2 may increase due to the supplemental oxygen, but this can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive and subsequent retention of carbon dioxide, causing an increase in PaCO2 levels. Option A is incorrect because rapid respirations would typically lower PaCO2 levels. Option C is incorrect as a pneumothorax would lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased PaO2 levels without necessarily affecting PaCO2 levels. Option D is incorrect as a pulmonary embolism would typically result in ventilation-perfusion mismatch and decreased PaO2 levels without directly impacting PaCO2 levels.

4. After a lumbar puncture, into which position does the nurse assist the client?

• A. Flat
• B. Semi-Fowler
• C. Side-lying with the head of the bed elevated
• D. Sitting up in a recliner with the feet elevated

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, the client should be positioned flat. This position helps prevent post-procedure spinal headaches and cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Keeping the client flat for up to 12 hours is crucial in minimizing these risks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because elevating the head of the bed or sitting up can increase the risk of complications by altering the pressure in the spinal canal, potentially leading to headaches and fluid leakage.

5. A client who has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) due to an aminoglycoside antibiotic has moved from the oliguric phase to the diuretic phase of AKI. Which parameters are most important for the nurse to plan to carefully monitor?

• A. Side effects of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and Intralipids.
• B. Uremic irritation of mucous membranes and skin surfaces.
• C. Elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
• D. Hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), monitoring for hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes is crucial. Hypovolemia can occur due to the increased urine output in this phase, potentially leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Electrolyte imbalances can result in ECG changes, such as arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful monitoring of fluid status and ECG findings helps in preventing complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most crucial parameters to monitor during the diuretic phase of AKI. Side effects of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and Intralipids, uremic irritation of mucous membranes and skin surfaces, and elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are important considerations in other phases of AKI or in other conditions, but they are not the primary focus during the diuretic phase when hypovolemia and ECG changes take precedence.

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