a patient who will begin taking trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole tmp smx asks the nurse why the combination drug is necessary the nurse will explain that a patient who will begin taking trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole tmp smx asks the nurse why the combination drug is necessary the nurse will explain that
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HESI RN

HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.

2. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed lithium carbonate. Which finding should the RN report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Elevated BUN levels may indicate renal impairment, which is crucial to report for clients on lithium due to its potential kidney effects. Option A, a serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range for lithium and does not require immediate reporting. Option C, a serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and not directly related to lithium therapy. Option D, urine output of 800 mL in 24 hours, may indicate a need for further assessment but is not the most critical finding to report compared to potential renal impairment indicated by an elevated BUN level.

3. Which of the following is an interpersonal activity of nurse managers, but not necessarily all nurse leaders?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coaching. Nurse managers are directly involved in coaching their team members, providing guidance, support, and mentorship. This is a key interpersonal activity that focuses on developing the skills and performance of individual team members. While nurse leaders may also engage in coaching activities, it is a more specific and hands-on role for nurse managers. Choice B, resource allocation, is a managerial function that involves distributing resources effectively and efficiently. Choice C, planning for the future, is a strategic activity that involves setting goals and directions for the organization. Choice D, monitoring, is a supervisory task that involves overseeing and evaluating processes and outcomes. These activities are important for nurse leaders as well as nurse managers, but coaching is a more direct interpersonal interaction typically associated with nurse managers.

4. The community health nurse believes that immunization rates in a lower socioeconomic section of the city are probably below the target set by the state health department. What action should the nurse take first to intervene with this health problem?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate initial action for the community health nurse to take when addressing low immunization rates in a lower socioeconomic area is to review current epidemiological data. By reviewing this data, the nurse can gather evidence that documents the low immunization rate in the community. This information is crucial to support the need for targeted interventions to increase immunization rates. Choices A, B, and D involve actions that may be important at later stages of intervention but are not the first step. Joining a political action group, partnering with a hospital for clinics, or holding a community meeting are all valuable strategies, but they should be based on evidence obtained from reviewing epidemiological data to ensure targeted and effective interventions.

5. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL. The client reports feeling thirsty and having frequent urination. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with type 1 diabetes presenting with hyperglycemia (blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL) and symptoms of thirst and frequent urination, the priority action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. Insulin helps lower the blood glucose level and prevents complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While encouraging hydration is essential, administering insulin is crucial to address the high blood glucose levels. Checking urine for ketones is important in diabetic management but is secondary to administering insulin in this scenario. Reinforcing diet and exercise importance is vital for diabetes management but not the priority in acute hyperglycemia.

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