HESI RN
Adult Health 2 HESI Quizlet
1. A patient who has been receiving diuretic therapy is admitted to the emergency department with a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse should alert the healthcare provider immediately that the patient is on which medication?
- A. Oral digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily
- B. Ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours
- C. Metoprolol (Lopressor) 12.5 mg orally daily
- D. Lantus insulin 24 U subcutaneously every evening
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hypokalemia increases the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. Therefore, with a low potassium level, the nurse should immediately alert the healthcare provider about the patient being on oral digoxin. Choices B, C, and D do not pose as much concern with the given potassium level. However, further assessment is still required for these medications.
2. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most beneficial?
- A. Ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care
- B. Provide the wife with information about hospice
- C. Encourage the wife to visit after painful treatments are completed
- D. Refer the wife to a support group for family members of those dying of cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most beneficial nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care. Involving the spouse in the care of the terminally ill client can provide comfort, support, and a sense of contribution during a challenging time. Providing information about hospice (B) is important but may not be the immediate priority. Encouraging the wife to visit after treatments are completed (C) may delay her involvement in the care. Referring her to a support group (D) is a good idea but might be more suitable at a later stage.
3. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
- B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
- C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
- D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.
4. A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question?
- A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr.
- B. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN.
- C. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea.
- D. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium decreases to less than 128 mEq/L.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr because the patient's gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, leading to hyponatremia. Therefore, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions like lactated Ringer’s solution would usually be ordered. The other choices (B, C, and D) are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction, addressing pain management, nausea control, and correcting hyponatremia if it drops below a certain level.
5. Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?
- A. Tie the knot with a double turn or square knot
- B. Ensure that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists
- C. Ensure that the knot can be quickly released
- D. Move the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority is to ensure that the knot can be quickly released to allow for quick intervention if necessary. Tying the knot with a double turn or square knot (Choice A) may make it more difficult to release quickly in an emergency. Ensuring that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists (Choice B) may compromise circulation and cause discomfort. Moving the ties to secure the restraints to the side rails (Choice D) is not the appropriate action as it can limit the client's movement and access to care.
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