HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. A patient receives 3% NaCl solution for correction of hyponatremia. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor while the patient is receiving this infusion?
- A. Lung sounds
- B. Urinary output
- C. Peripheral pulses
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lung sounds. Hypertonic solutions like 3% NaCl can cause water retention, leading to fluid excess. Monitoring lung sounds is crucial as crackles may indicate pulmonary edema, a serious manifestation of fluid excess. While monitoring urinary output, peripheral pulses, and peripheral edema are also important when administering hypertonic solutions, they do not provide immediate clues to acute respiratory or cardiac decompensation like lung sounds.
2. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued, and is experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client's laboratory values to validate the existence of which?
- A. Hyperphosphatemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypermagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Generalized weakness, muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are manifestations of hypokalemia. Checking the potassium level is essential in this case. Hypocalcemia typically presents with facial muscle spasms, not the symptoms mentioned. Hypermagnesemia does not typically cause the symptoms described. It's important to note that orange juice is high in potassium and would be advisable to drink if the patient was hypokalemic. Loose stools are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
3. A patient who had a transverse colectomy for diverticulosis 18 hours ago has nasogastric suction and is complaining of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient’s respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Discontinue the nasogastric suction.
- B. Give the patient the PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg.
- C. Notify the health care provider about the ABG results.
- D. Teach the patient how to take slow, deep breaths when anxious.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient’s respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurse’s first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. Although the nasogastric suction may contribute to the alkalosis, it is not appropriate to discontinue the tube when the patient needs gastric suction. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain.
4. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. Patient with a serum potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L who is complaining of abdominal cramping
- B. Patient with a serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L who has a dry mouth and is asking for a glass of water
- C. Patient with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
- D. Patient with a serum phosphorus level of 4.5 mg/dL who has multiple soft tissue calcium-phosphate precipitates
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is patient C with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. The low magnesium level and neuromuscular irritability suggest that the patient may be at risk for seizures, which are life-threatening. Assessing and addressing this patient's condition promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Patients A, B, and D have mild electrolyte disturbances or symptoms that require attention, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications like seizures, unlike patient C.
5. A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?
- A. blood transfusion
- B. chemotherapy
- C. bone marrow transplantation
- D. immunosuppressive therapy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the case of acquired aplastic anemia, bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of cure as it replaces the abnormal stem cells with healthy ones. Blood transfusion may provide temporary relief by replacing blood cells, but it does not address the root cause of the condition. Chemotherapy may be used in some cases, but it is not the preferred treatment for acquired aplastic anemia. While immunosuppressive therapy can be effective, especially in patients who are not candidates for a bone marrow transplant, it is not the first-line treatment and does not offer the same potential for a cure as bone marrow transplantation.
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