Nursing Elites

1. At 01:00 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Leave the room and close the door to the client's room
• B. Assess the appearance of the client's surgical dressing
• C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
• D. Discuss symptoms of sleep deprivation with the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client has a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating an intention to sleep. Therefore, offering a PRN sedative-hypnotic (C) is unnecessary, especially since it is a stronger sleep aid. Option (D) is not needed as the client already has a plan to address his sleeplessness. Assessing the surgical dressing (B) is not relevant to the client's immediate need for sleep. Leaving the room and closing the door (A) is the appropriate action to provide a conducive environment for the client to rest.

2. A client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is requesting information on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. Which action should the nurse recommend first?

• A. Plan low-carbohydrate and high-protein meals
• B. Engage in moderate physical activity for an hour daily
• C. Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily
• D. Participate in a group exercise class 3 times a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A BMI of 30 indicates the patient is obese. The first step in a weight loss plan should be to keep a food journal to track calorie intake, which can help in meal planning and creating a workout routine. Choice (A) suggests a dietary approach, which is important but not the first step. Choice (B) recommends strenuous activity, which may not be suitable for everyone and is not the initial step. Choice (D) involves group exercise, which can be beneficial but is not the primary action to take at the beginning of a weight loss plan.

3. A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question?

• A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr.
• B. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN.
• C. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea.
• D. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium decreases to less than 128 mEq/L.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr because the patient's gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, leading to hyponatremia. Therefore, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions like lactated Ringer’s solution would usually be ordered. The other choices (B, C, and D) are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction, addressing pain management, nausea control, and correcting hyponatremia if it drops below a certain level.

4. A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?

• A. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
• B. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level.
• C. Review the magnesium level on the patient’s chart.
• D. Teach the patient about the risk of magnesium-containing antacids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient’s current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.

5. A male client with unstable angina needs a cardiac catheterization. So the healthcare provider explains the risks and benefits of the procedure and then leaves to set up for the procedure. When the nurse presents the consent form for signature, the client hesitates and asks how the wires will keep his heart going. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Answer the client's specific questions with a short, understandable explanation
• B. Postpone the procedure until the client understands the risks and benefits
• C. Call the client's next of kin and ask them to provide verbal consent
• D. Page the healthcare provider to return and provide additional explanation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to page the healthcare provider to return and provide additional explanation. It is crucial for the client to have a clear understanding of the procedure, including its risks and benefits, before signing the consent form. While the nurse can provide general information, the detailed explanation of how the procedure works and its effects should come from the healthcare provider who will perform the procedure. Postponing the procedure until the client understands is appropriate, but the immediate need is to clarify the client's concerns with the healthcare provider. Calling the client's next of kin for verbal consent is not the correct course of action as the client is present and able to provide consent after receiving adequate information.

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