Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with chronic heart failure who forgot to take prescribed medications and seems confused. The patient complains of "just blowing up" and has peripheral edema and shortness of breath. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?

• A. Skin turgor
• B. Heart sounds
• C. Mental status
• D. Capillary refill

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increases in extracellular fluid (ECF) can lead to swelling of cells in the central nervous system, initially causing confusion, which may progress to coma or seizures. Although skin turgor, capillary refill, and heart sounds also may be affected by increases in ECF, these are signs that do not have as immediate impact on patient outcomes as cerebral edema.

2. How should the nurse interpret the following arterial blood gas results for a patient who had a tracheostomy placed after a motor vehicle crash: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's pH of 7.48 indicates alkalosis, and the low PaCO2 of 32 mm Hg suggests a respiratory cause. The HCO3 level is normal, ruling out metabolic causes. Therefore, the correct interpretation is respiratory alkalosis. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the pH and PaCO2 values provided.

3. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe? (Select all that apply).

• A. Tops of the ears
• B. Bridge of the nose
• C. Around the nostrils
• D. Over the cheeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Around the nostrils.' Constant pressure from the tubing may create skin damage to the areas of skin and bony prominences the nasal cannula will be resting on, including around the nostrils. Choice A, 'Tops of the ears,' is incorrect as the cannula does not rest on the ears. Choice B, 'Bridge of the nose,' is incorrect because the cannula typically rests under the nose. Choice D, 'Over the cheeks,' is also incorrect as the cannula does not typically rest on the cheeks.

4. When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient’s food tray?

• A. Grape juice
• B. Milk carton
• C. Mixed green salad
• D. Fried chicken breast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Milk carton. Foods high in phosphate, like milk and other dairy products, are restricted on low-phosphate diets to manage renal failure. Green, leafy vegetables, high-fat foods, and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted. Therefore, grape juice, mixed green salad, and fried chicken breast do not need to be removed from the patient's food tray.

5. When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased.
• B. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent.
• C. The patient has been sleeping most of the day.
• D. The patient reports feeling 'sick to my stomach.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of patellar and triceps reflexes indicates potential magnesium toxicity, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and lethargy are common side effects of elevated magnesium levels and should be reported, but they are not as critical as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. Decreased breath sounds suggest the need for coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis, which is important but not as urgent as addressing magnesium toxicity.

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