Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Clear dialysate inflow.
• C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician as it is a concerning sign of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneum. Peritonitis is a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires prompt medical intervention to prevent further complications. Clear dialysate outflow and inflow are normal findings in peritoneal dialysis and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Increased blood pressure, while important to monitor, is not directly related to peritoneal dialysis and would not be the priority over the potentially life-threatening complication of peritonitis.

2. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?

• A. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him.
• B. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner.
• C. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time.
• D. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to an infant through an intermittent needle. The nurse notes that the infant has not had a wet diaper for several hours. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Administer the medication and give the infant extra oral fluids.
• B. Contact the provider to request adding intravenous fluids when giving the medication.
• C. Give the medication and obtain a serum peak drug level 45 minutes after the dose.
• D. Hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the infant not having a wet diaper for several hours indicates a potential decrease in urine output, which can be a sign of nephrotoxicity related to gentamicin. The correct action for the nurse is to hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level. This is important to monitor the drug levels and ensure that they are not reaching toxic levels. Administering the medication without addressing the decreased urine output could potentially lead to further nephrotoxicity. Contacting the provider to add intravenous fluids or obtaining a serum peak drug level are not the most appropriate actions in this situation as the priority is to assess for potential nephrotoxicity and ensure patient safety.

4. After delegating to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) the task of completing a bladder scan examination for a client, the nurse evaluates the UAP’s performance. Which action by the UAP indicates the nurse must provide additional instructions when delegating this task?

• A. Selecting the female icon for all female clients and the male icon for all male clients
• B. Explaining to the client, 'This test measures the amount of urine in your bladder.'
• C. Applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use
• D. Taking at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the UAP should select the female icon for women who have not had a hysterectomy to allow the scanner to subtract the volume of the uterus from readings. If a woman has had a hysterectomy, the UAP should choose the male icon. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for the UAP to explain the procedure to the client to ensure understanding. Choice C is incorrect because applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use are appropriate actions. Choice D is incorrect as it is necessary for the UAP to take at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head accurately for an effective bladder scan examination.

5. A client who underwent surgery and experienced significant blood loss is being cared for by a nurse. Which findings by the nurse should prompt immediate action to prevent acute kidney injury? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours
• B. Large amount of sediment in the urine
• C. A & B
• D. Amber, odorless urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse must monitor for signs of acute kidney injury in a postoperative client who had major blood loss. Low urine output, presence of sediment in the urine, and low blood pressure should raise concerns and be reported to the healthcare provider promptly. Postoperatively, assessing urine characteristics is crucial. Sediment, hematuria, and urine output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for 3 to 4 hours should be reported. While a urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours is low, it should be compared to the recommended 0.5 mL/kg/hour over a longer period. Perfusion to the kidneys is a priority, hence the importance of addressing low blood pressure. Amber, odorless urine is considered normal and does not indicate an immediate concern for acute kidney injury, unlike low urine output and presence of sediment.

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