HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Clear dialysate inflow.
- C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician as it is a concerning sign of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneum. Peritonitis is a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires prompt medical intervention to prevent further complications. Clear dialysate outflow and inflow are normal findings in peritoneal dialysis and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Increased blood pressure, while important to monitor, is not directly related to peritoneal dialysis and would not be the priority over the potentially life-threatening complication of peritonitis.
2. A client is brought to the emergency department by a neighbor. The client is lethargic and has a fruity odor on the breath. The client’s arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.25, PCO2 34 mm Hg, PO2 86 mm Hg, HCO3 14 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Metabolic acidosis.' Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH (<7.35) and a low bicarbonate level (HCO3 <22 mEq/L). In this case, the client's ABG results show a pH of 7.25 and an HCO3 level of 14 mEq/L, indicating metabolic acidosis. The PCO2 of 34 mm Hg is normal, ruling out respiratory acidosis or alkalosis. The PO2 of 86 mm Hg is also within the normal range and is not indicative of a respiratory problem. Therefore, the client is experiencing metabolic acidosis based on the ABG results provided.
3. A nurse has a prescription to discontinue a client’s nasogastric tube. The nurse auscultates the client’s bowel sounds, positions the client properly, and flushes the tube with 15 mL of air to clear secretions. The nurse then instructs the client to take a deep breath and:
- A. Exhale during tube removal
- B. Bear down during tube removal
- C. Hold the breath during tube removal
- D. Breathe normally during tube removal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to hold their breath during tube removal. This is because the airway may be temporarily obstructed during the removal process. By holding their breath, the client can help prevent aspiration or discomfort during the removal of the nasogastric tube. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because exhaling, bearing down, or breathing normally during tube removal may not provide the necessary protection against aspiration or discomfort that holding the breath does.
4. A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Document findings and continue to monitor the client.
- B. Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test.
- C. Review the client’s recent dietary selections.
- D. Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL, which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor is not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client’s dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality.
5. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question should the nurse ask first?
- A. Are you drinking plenty of water?
- B. What medications are you taking?
- C. Have you tried laxatives or enemas?
- D. Has this type of thing ever happened before?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of dry mouth, constipation, and inability to void are indicative of anticholinergic side effects, which can be caused by medications like propantheline (Pro-Banthine) commonly used to treat incontinence. The first question the nurse should ask is about the client's medications to determine if they are taking anticholinergic drugs. This information is crucial as it can help differentiate between a simple side effect or a potential overdose. Asking about water intake (Choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority in this situation. Questioning about laxatives or enemas (Choice C) and past occurrences (Choice D) are not as pertinent initially as identifying the client's current medication status.
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