Nursing Elites

1. When assessing the effectiveness of leflunomide (Arava) in a client with rheumatoid arthritis, which question should the nurse ask during data collection?

• A. Do you have any joint pain?
• B. Are you having any diarrhea?
• C. Do you have frequent headaches?
• D. Are you experiencing heartburn?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess the effectiveness of leflunomide (Arava), a medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse should inquire about joint pain. Joint pain is a common symptom of rheumatoid arthritis, and improvement in joint pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in managing the condition.

2. A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Peripheral neuritis
• C. Small blood vessel spasm
• D. Impaired peripheral circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities indicate peripheral neuritis, a common side effect of isoniazid (INH). This condition can be managed by supplementing with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to minimize the symptoms.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine (Catapres) transdermal patch. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

• A. I should change the patch daily.
• B. I should remove the old patch before applying a new one.
• C. I should avoid alcohol consumption while using this patch.
• D. I should apply the patch to different sites each time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client should remove the old clonidine (Catapres) patch before applying a new one to prevent overdose. The patch is typically changed every 7 days. Avoiding alcohol consumption is important as it can potentiate the sedative effects of clonidine. It is recommended to rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal drug absorption.

4. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

5. A client is prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Increase your intake of purine-rich foods.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you experience a gout attack.
• D. Take the medication with or without food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps prevent kidney stones which can be a side effect of the medication. It is important for the client to avoid purine-rich foods to help manage gout symptoms. They should continue taking the medication even during a gout attack as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Allopurinol can be taken with or without food, so there is no need to take it on an empty stomach. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as increasing purine-rich foods is not recommended, stopping the medication during a gout attack is not advised, and allopurinol can be taken with or without food.

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