HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI Quizlet
1. When assessing the effectiveness of leflunomide (Arava) in a client with rheumatoid arthritis, which question should the nurse ask during data collection?
- A. Do you have any joint pain?
- B. Are you having any diarrhea?
- C. Do you have frequent headaches?
- D. Are you experiencing heartburn?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To assess the effectiveness of leflunomide (Arava), a medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse should inquire about joint pain. Joint pain is a common symptom of rheumatoid arthritis, and improvement in joint pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in managing the condition.
2. A client is instructed to take levothyroxine (Synthroid). The medication should be taken:
- A. With food
- B. At lunchtime
- C. On an empty stomach
- D. At bedtime with a snack
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with food or at bedtime can interfere with its absorption, reducing its effectiveness. Therefore, it is essential for the client to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.
3. Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Signs of hepatitis
- B. Flu-like syndrome
- C. Low neutrophil count
- D. Vitamin B6 deficiency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Rifabutin is known to cause side effects such as hepatitis, flu-like syndrome, low neutrophil count, and ocular pain or blurred vision. Vitamin B6 deficiency is not associated with rifabutin but is a side effect of isoniazid (INH). Therefore, the nurse should not monitor for Vitamin B6 deficiency when administering rifabutin.
4. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?
- A. Sodium of 140 mEq/L
- B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
- C. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
- D. A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.
5. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:
- A. Prednisone
- B. Sulfisoxazole
- C. Furosemide (Lasix)
- D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.
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