Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the medication teaching?

• A. I will avoid potassium-rich foods.
• B. I will not use a salt substitute.
• C. I will monitor my weight daily.
• D. I will increase my fluid intake as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is 'I will avoid potassium-rich foods.' Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia if potassium intake is not regulated. Therefore, avoiding potassium-rich foods is crucial to prevent this complication. Using a salt substitute can also increase potassium levels. Monitoring weight daily is essential in heart failure management, but it is not specific to spironolactone. Increasing fluid intake as prescribed is generally recommended for heart failure management but is not directly related to spironolactone use.

2. During an admission assessment, a client informs the nurse that they take propylthiouracil (PTU) daily. Based on this information, the nurse suspects that the client has a history of:

• A. Myxedema
• B. Graves' disease
• C. Addison's disease
• D. Cushing's syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism, including Graves' disease, which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. The client mentioning the daily use of PTU indicates that they likely have a history of Graves' disease, as this medication helps manage the condition by reducing the production of thyroid hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Graves' disease. Choice A, Myxedema, is incorrect as it refers to a condition of severe hypothyroidism, the opposite of hyperthyroidism. Choices C and D, Addison's disease and Cushing's syndrome, respectively, are unrelated to the use of PTU or hyperthyroidism, making them incorrect choices.

3. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

4. A client is receiving dietary instructions from a nurse regarding warfarin sodium (Coumadin) therapy. The nurse advises the client to avoid which food item?

• A. Grapes
• B. Spinach
• C. Watermelon
• D. Cottage cheese

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach. Spinach is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes the effects of warfarin sodium, an anticoagulant medication. Clients taking warfarin should avoid consuming foods rich in vitamin K, like spinach, to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Grapes (choice A), watermelon (choice C), and cottage cheese (choice D) do not interfere with the effects of warfarin, so they are safe for the client to consume while on warfarin therapy.

5. An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?

• A. Tremors
• B. Dizziness
• C. Confusion
• D. Hallucinations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Older clients are particularly vulnerable to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent side effect is confusion. It is crucial for nurses to be vigilant in monitoring for confusion as it can impact the client's safety and well-being. While tremors, dizziness, and hallucinations are possible side effects, confusion is the most common in older clients taking cimetidine.

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