HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. In a client with heart failure presenting bilateral +4 edema of the right ankle extending up to midcalf while sitting with legs dependent, what is the priority goal?
- A. Decrease venous congestion.
- B. Maintain normal respirations.
- C. Maintain body temperature.
- D. Prevent injury to lower extremities.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority goal in this scenario is to decrease venous congestion. By elevating the legs above the heart level, venous return is improved, reducing congestion in the lower extremities. This intervention helps decrease swelling and prevents complications such as impaired tissue perfusion. Maintaining normal respirations and body temperature are important aspects of care but are secondary to addressing the immediate issue of venous congestion. Preventing injury to lower extremities is also essential but takes precedence after managing the venous congestion to prevent further complications.
2. A client's urinalysis results show a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
- B. Contact the provider and recommend a low-sodium diet.
- C. Prepare to administer an intravenous diuretic.
- D. Obtain a suction device and implement seizure precautions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the client has a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L, indicating dehydration, is to encourage the client to drink more fluids. Dehydration can lead to elevated urine osmolality, and increasing fluid intake can help rehydrate the client. A low-sodium diet is not the priority in this scenario as it would not directly address the dehydration indicated by the high urine osmolality. Administering an intravenous diuretic would further concentrate the urine, exacerbating the dehydration. Obtaining a suction device and implementing seizure precautions are not indicated based on the client's urine osmolality results and would not address the underlying issue of dehydration.
3. A healthcare professional has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional take during this procedure?
- A. Keeping the specimen chilled
- B. Saving the first urine specimen collected at the start time
- C. Discarding the last voided specimen at the end of the collection time
- D. Asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time. During a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided urine is discarded to ensure the test starts with an empty bladder. The specimen should be kept chilled, not at room temperature, to prevent bacterial growth. The last voided specimen is not discarded because it contributes to the total volume collected, so choice C is incorrect. Discarding the specimen and noting the start time is essential for accurate results in a timed quantitative determination like a 24-hour urine collection.
4. A client in the intensive care unit is started on continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH). Which finding should prompt immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg
- B. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L
- D. Pulse rate of 90 beats/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg. In a client undergoing continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH), hypotension can be a significant concern if replacement fluid does not adequately maintain blood pressure. The nurse should take immediate action to address hypotension to prevent further complications. The sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within normal range, and a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L, while slightly elevated, may be expected in a patient with acute kidney injury. A pulse rate of 90 beats/min falls within the normal range and does not typically require immediate intervention in this context.
5. A nurse is conducting an assessment of a client who underwent thoracentesis of the right side of the chest 3 hours ago. Which findings does the nurse report to the physician? Select all that apply.
- A. Unequal chest expansion
- B. Pulse rate of 82 beats/min
- C. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
- D. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After thoracentesis, the nurse should assess the client for signs of pneumothorax, which include increased respiratory rate, dyspnea, retractions, unequal chest expansion, diminished breath sounds, and cyanosis. Unequal chest expansion is a key sign of pneumothorax due to the accumulation of air in the pleural space, causing the affected lung to collapse partially. Pulse rate and respiratory rate within normal ranges, like in choices B and C, are not the priority findings to report in this situation. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung could be expected after thoracentesis and may not necessarily indicate a complication like pneumothorax, making choice D less urgent to report.
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