Nursing Elites

1. A nursing student is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube while a nurse observes. Which action by the student would prompt the nurse to intervene and demonstrate the correct procedure? Select all that apply.

• A. Setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg
• B. Applying suction throughout the procedure
• C. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning
• D. Placing the client in a supine position before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct suction pressure for an adult client with a tracheostomy tube is typically between 80 to 120 mm Hg. Suction should be applied intermittently during catheter withdrawal to avoid damaging the airway. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning is important to ensure the procedure is necessary. Placing the client in a supine position before suctioning can compromise their airway; instead, the head of the bed should be elevated to facilitate proper drainage and reduce the risk of aspiration. Therefore, setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg is incorrect and would prompt the nurse to intervene and correct the procedure.

2. A nurse is assessing a postoperative client on an hourly basis. The nurse notes that the client’s urine output for the past hour was 25 mL. Based on this finding, the nurse first:

• A. Calls the physician
• B. Increases the rate of the IV infusion
• C. Checks the client’s overall intake and output record
• D. Administers a 250-mL bolus of normal saline solution (0.9%)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients are at risk of hypovolemia postoperatively, and decreased urine output can be an early sign. However, to accurately interpret this finding, the nurse must assess the overall fluid balance by checking the client’s intake and output records. Increasing the IV infusion rate or administering a bolus of normal saline solution without a physician's order would not be appropriate as these interventions require a prescription. The physician should be notified once the nurse has collected all necessary assessment data, including fluid status and vital signs.

3. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following is a common electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hypernatremia.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys' reduced function leads to the decreased excretion of potassium, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. This can be dangerous as hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypokalemia (Choice B) is less common in chronic kidney disease as the impaired kidneys tend to retain potassium. Hypernatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen in conditions such as dehydration, not primarily in chronic kidney disease. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is also possible in chronic kidney disease but is less common compared to hyperkalemia.

4. After a myocardial infarction, why is the hospitalized client taught to move the legs while resting in bed?

• A. Prepare the client for ambulation.
• B. Promote urinary and intestinal elimination.
• C. Prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation.
• D. Decrease the likelihood of pressure ulcer formation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Moving the legs helps prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation by promoting venous return in clients on bed rest. This prevents stasis and clot formation in the lower extremities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary goal of moving the legs is to prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation, rather than preparing for ambulation, promoting elimination, or decreasing pressure ulcer formation. Ambulation preparation involves different exercises, urinary and intestinal elimination are not directly related to leg movements, and pressure ulcer prevention is more related to repositioning and skin care.

5. A client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur that is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that the client's distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Verify pedal pulses using a Doppler pulse device
• B. Evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg
• C. Offer ice chips and clear oral liquids
• D. Monitor the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating the application of the splint is the priority as it ensures it is not too tight, which could impair circulation and exacerbate the diminished pulses. Verifying pedal pulses with a Doppler pulse device may be indicated but does not directly address the immediate concern of proper splint application. Offering ice chips and clear oral liquids would not address the issue of diminished distal pulses. Monitoring the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, and pressure is important but would not directly address the cause of the diminished pulses in this scenario.

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