Nursing Elites

1. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and that her eyes are puffy. What follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?

• A. Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?
• B. Have you had any changes in weight or energy levels?
• C. Do you have a family history of thyroid problems?
• D. Have you had recent cold intolerance or unusual fatigue?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cold intolerance, fatigue, and other changes may indicate hypothyroidism, which could explain the hair and eyebrow loss, and puffy eyes. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the symptoms presented by the client.

2. A client with a head injury reports severe nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
• B. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed and provide an emesis basin.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe nausea in a client with a head injury may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure timely intervention, as increased pressure can lead to further complications such as brain herniation. Administering anti-nausea medication or preparing for a CT scan may delay necessary treatment for the underlying cause of the nausea, which could be related to the head injury. Elevating the head of the bed and providing an emesis basin may help manage symptoms but should not be the priority over addressing the potential increase in intracranial pressure.

3. While changing a client's chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a cracking sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Apply a pressure dressing at the chest tube site.
• B. Administer an oral antihistamine per PRN order.
• C. Assess the client for allergies to topical cleaning agents.
• D. Measure the area of crackling and swelling.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the area of crackling and swelling is essential in monitoring the progression of subcutaneous emphysema, which can result from air leaking into the tissues around the chest tube insertion site. This technique helps evaluate the extent of the issue and guides further interventions. Applying a pressure dressing (choice A) might exacerbate the condition by trapping more air. Administering an oral antihistamine (choice B) is not indicated for subcutaneous emphysema. Assessing for allergies to topical cleaning agents (choice C) is not the priority in this situation compared to evaluating and managing the subcutaneous emphysema.

4. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

5. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving an insulin infusion. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L.
• B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
• C. Urine output of 50 mL/hour.
• D. Absence of ketones in the urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absence of ketones in the urine. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) receiving an insulin infusion, the absence of ketones in the urine indicates that ketoacidosis is resolving. This is a crucial finding as it shows that the insulin therapy is effectively addressing the metabolic imbalance causing DKA. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within normal range but does not directly reflect the resolution of DKA; a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL, while improved, is still high and does not specifically indicate the resolution of ketoacidosis; urine output of 50 mL/hour is within normal limits but does not directly point to the resolution of DKA.

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