Nursing Elites

1. A nurse preparing a client for surgery reviews the client's medication record. The client is to be nothing per mouth (NPO) after midnight. Which of the following medications, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse question?

• A. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
• B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
• C. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adrenal atrophy, reducing the body's ability to withstand stress. During surgery, the dosage may need to be adjusted due to its impact on the body's stress response. Choices A, B, and C are not typically contraindicated before surgery and do not have the same potential impact on the body's stress response.

2. A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2 to 4 hours after administration
• B. 4 to 12 hours after administration
• C. 16 to 18 hours after administration
• D. 18 to 24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with a peak action time of 4 to 12 hours after administration. During this period, the risk of hypoglycemic reactions is highest. It is important for the client to be aware of this timing to prevent, recognize, and manage hypoglycemia effectively.

3. A client is being cared for by a nurse due to severe back pain, and codeine sulfate has been prescribed. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Restrict fluid intake.
• B. Monitor bowel activity.
• C. Monitor for hypertension.
• D. Monitor peripheral pulses.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed codeine sulfate, it is essential to monitor bowel activity because this medication can lead to constipation. Therefore, monitoring bowel function is crucial to prevent or manage any potential gastrointestinal issues that may arise.

4. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Constipation
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

5. Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Signs of hepatitis
• B. Flu-like syndrome
• C. Low neutrophil count
• D. Vitamin B6 deficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rifabutin is known to cause side effects such as hepatitis, flu-like syndrome, low neutrophil count, and ocular pain or blurred vision. Vitamin B6 deficiency is not associated with rifabutin but is a side effect of isoniazid (INH). Therefore, the nurse should not monitor for Vitamin B6 deficiency when administering rifabutin.

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