Nursing Elites

1. A nurse preparing a client for surgery reviews the client's medication record. The client is to be nothing per mouth (NPO) after midnight. Which of the following medications, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse question?

• A. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
• B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
• C. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adrenal atrophy, reducing the body's ability to withstand stress. During surgery, the dosage may need to be adjusted due to its impact on the body's stress response. Choices A, B, and C are not typically contraindicated before surgery and do not have the same potential impact on the body's stress response.

2. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

3. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching about the use of metoprolol (Lopressor)?

• A. I will not stop taking the medication abruptly.
• B. I will take my pulse before taking the medication.
• C. I will take the medication with food.
• D. I will take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because taking metoprolol (Lopressor) at bedtime is not specifically recommended. Metoprolol should be taken with food to enhance absorption. It is crucial for the client not to stop taking the medication abruptly to prevent rebound hypertension or other adverse effects. Additionally, monitoring the pulse before taking metoprolol is important for assessing its effect on heart rate.

4. The clinic nurse is reviewing a teaching plan for a client receiving antineoplastic medication. When implementing the plan, the nurse should advise the client:

• A. To take aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) as needed for a headache
• B. To avoid drinking beverages containing alcohol
• C. To consult with healthcare providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations
• D. That it is necessary to consult HCPs before receiving a flu vaccine at the local health fair

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct advice for a client receiving antineoplastic medication is to consult with healthcare providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations. Antineoplastic medications can lower the body's resistance, making it crucial to seek guidance from healthcare providers to prevent potential complications that may arise due to the medication's impact on the immune system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking aspirin for a headache, avoiding alcohol, and consulting only before a flu vaccine at a local health fair do not directly address the specific risk related to antineoplastic medications and immunizations.

5. A client is prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Increase your intake of purine-rich foods.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you experience a gout attack.
• D. Take the medication with or without food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps prevent kidney stones which can be a side effect of the medication. It is important for the client to avoid purine-rich foods to help manage gout symptoms. They should continue taking the medication even during a gout attack as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Allopurinol can be taken with or without food, so there is no need to take it on an empty stomach. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as increasing purine-rich foods is not recommended, stopping the medication during a gout attack is not advised, and allopurinol can be taken with or without food.

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