a nurse preparing a client for surgery reviews the clients medication record the client is to be nothing per mouth npo after midnight which of the fol
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam

1. A nurse preparing a client for surgery reviews the client's medication record. The client is to be nothing per mouth (NPO) after midnight. Which of the following medications, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adrenal atrophy, reducing the body's ability to withstand stress. During surgery, the dosage may need to be adjusted due to its impact on the body's stress response. Choices A, B, and C are not typically contraindicated before surgery and do not have the same potential impact on the body's stress response.

2. A client is prescribed calcium gluconate after thyroidectomy. The medication is most likely prescribed to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands can be inadvertently removed or damaged, leading to a decrease in calcium levels and potentially causing hypocalcemic tetany. Calcium gluconate is given to supplement calcium levels and prevent or treat hypocalcemia-related symptoms, such as muscle spasms and tetany.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular dose of penicillin to a client with a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client who has a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin, the priority action for the healthcare professional is to have an epinephrine injection readily available in case of a severe allergic reaction. In such cases, the immediate focus is on being prepared to manage a potentially life-threatening situation. While checking the medication order for accuracy, administering a test dose, and asking the client about allergies are essential steps in medication administration, the first priority is ensuring the availability of epinephrine to address a severe allergic reaction promptly.

4. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan when taking methotrexate is to report any signs of infection immediately. Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. It is important for the client to promptly report any signs of infection to receive timely medical intervention. Choice A is incorrect because folic acid supplements are often recommended to reduce side effects of methotrexate. Choice C is incorrect as methotrexate is usually taken on an empty stomach unless the client experiences gastrointestinal upset. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit fluid intake while on methotrexate; in fact, maintaining adequate fluid intake is important to prevent complications such as kidney damage.

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