Nursing Elites

1. A nurse preparing a client for surgery reviews the client's medication record. The client is to be nothing per mouth (NPO) after midnight. Which of the following medications, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse question?

• A. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
• B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
• C. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adrenal atrophy, reducing the body's ability to withstand stress. During surgery, the dosage may need to be adjusted due to its impact on the body's stress response. Choices A, B, and C are not typically contraindicated before surgery and do not have the same potential impact on the body's stress response.

2. A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hearing loss
• C. Headache
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gentamicin (Garamycin) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. Hearing loss is a serious adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or adjust the treatment regimen. Nausea, headache, and diarrhea are common side effects of gentamicin but are not as severe or urgent as hearing loss in this context.

3. A client taking fexofenadine (Allegra) is scheduled for allergy skin testing and tells the nurse in the healthcare provider's office that a dose was taken this morning. The nurse determines that:

• A. The client should reschedule the appointment.
• B. A lower dose of allergen will need to be injected.
• C. A higher dose of allergen will need to be injected.
• D. The client should have the skin test read a day later than usual.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fexofenadine, an antihistamine, can cause false-negative readings in allergy skin testing and should be discontinued 3 days prior. Therefore, the client should reschedule the appointment to ensure accurate test results.

4. A client is being monitored while receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) for urinary retention. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased peristalsis
• C. Passage of flatus
• D. Urinary output of 50 mL per hour

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is administered to stimulate the bladder and treat urinary retention. The therapeutic effect is indicated by an increased urinary output, as it demonstrates the medication's ability to prompt the bladder to empty. Increased heart rate and passage of flatus are unrelated to the therapeutic effects of bethanechol. Although bethanechol can increase peristalsis, the primary therapeutic goal is to address urinary retention.

5. The healthcare provider is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory value would the healthcare provider specifically note as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy?

• A. Anemia
• B. Decreased platelets
• C. Increased uric acid level
• D. Decreased leukocyte count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following chemotherapy for leukemias and lymphomas, hyperuricemia is common due to the massive cell kill. Chemotherapy leads to the rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing large amounts of nucleic acids, which are broken down into uric acid. Monitoring and managing uric acid levels are crucial to prevent complications such as renal damage and gout.

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