Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager works hard to keep employee morale high with the thought that this will lead to effective employees doing the best work they can. Which of the following theories does this best describe?

• A. Theory X
• B. Theory Y
• C. Servant leadership
• D. Scientific management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theory Y, as proposed by Douglas McGregor, emphasizes that employees are intrinsically motivated and seek responsibility. It suggests that high morale leads to high productivity, aligning with the nurse manager's actions. Theory X, on the other hand, assumes employees are inherently lazy and need to be closely monitored and controlled. Servant leadership focuses on serving others first and prioritizing their needs, which is not directly related to the scenario described. Scientific management, developed by Frederick Taylor, emphasizes efficiency and standardization through systematic study and organizational control, which is not the primary focus of the nurse manager's approach to boosting employee morale.

2. Knowing that gluconeogenesis helps to maintain blood glucose levels, a healthcare provider should:

• A. Document weight changes due to fatty acid mobilization.
• B. Evaluate the patient's sensitivity to low room temperatures due to decreased adipose tissue insulation.
• C. Protect the patient from sources of infection due to decreased cellular protein deposits.
• D. Do all of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gluconeogenesis is a process where the body synthesizes glucose from non-carbohydrate sources to maintain blood glucose levels. Documenting weight changes due to fatty acid mobilization is important as it can impact the patient's metabolic status. Evaluating the patient's sensitivity to low room temperatures because of decreased adipose tissue insulation is crucial to prevent hypothermia. Protecting the patient from sources of infection due to decreased cellular protein deposits is essential to prevent complications. Therefore, all the options are relevant considerations in managing a patient undergoing gluconeogenesis, making option D the correct answer.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The healthcare professional reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client:

• A. Has renal failure.
• B. Requires nasogastric suction.
• C. Has a history of Addison's disease.
• D. Is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric suction can lead to significant potassium loss due to the continuous drainage of gastric contents, increasing the risk of a potassium deficit. Choices A, C, and D do not directly result in the significant loss of potassium. Renal failure may lead to potassium retention rather than a deficit. Addison's disease is associated with adrenal insufficiency, not potassium depletion. Potassium-sparing diuretics, as the name suggests, typically help retain potassium rather than cause a deficit.

4. A client with Cushing's syndrome has been prescribed a diet low in sodium. The nurse knows that the client should avoid which of the following foods?

• A. Bananas
• B. Spinach
• C. Processed meats
• D. Oatmeal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Processed meats. Clients with Cushing's syndrome who are on a low-sodium diet should avoid processed meats because they are typically high in sodium. Bananas, spinach, and oatmeal are generally low in sodium and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Bananas are a good source of potassium, spinach is rich in vitamins and minerals, and oatmeal is a healthy whole grain option. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the best options to avoid for a client with Cushing's syndrome following a low-sodium diet.

5. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

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