Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected diabetes insipidus. Which of the following clinical manifestations would support this diagnosis?

• A. Polyuria and polydipsia
• B. Hypertension and bradycardia
• C. Weight gain and edema
• D. Oliguria and thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst) are classic clinical manifestations of diabetes insipidus. In this condition, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine effectively, resulting in increased urine output (polyuria) and consequent thirst (polydipsia). Hypertension and bradycardia (Choice B) are not typical findings in diabetes insipidus. Weight gain and edema (Choice C) are more indicative of conditions such as heart failure or nephrotic syndrome. Oliguria (decreased urine output) and thirst (Choice D) are contradictory symptoms to what is seen in diabetes insipidus.

2. The client with DM is being instructed by the nurse about the importance of controlling blood glucose levels. The nurse should emphasize that uncontrolled blood glucose can lead to:

• A. Increased risk of heart disease and stroke.
• B. Improved wound healing.
• C. Reduced need for medication.
• D. Decreased risk of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of heart disease and stroke. Uncontrolled blood glucose levels in clients with diabetes mellitus (DM) can lead to cardiovascular complications, such as heart disease and stroke. High blood glucose levels can damage blood vessels over time, increasing the risk of atherosclerosis and cardiovascular events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because uncontrolled blood glucose levels do not improve wound healing, reduce the need for medication, or decrease the risk of infection. In fact, uncontrolled blood glucose levels can impair wound healing, require more medications to manage symptoms, and increase the risk of infections due to compromised immune function.

3. A female client with physical findings suggestive of a hyperpituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, necessitating a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the surgery, Nurse Jacob reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions provided to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize?

• A. You must lie flat for 24 hours after surgery.
• B. You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose.
• C. You must restrict your fluid intake.
• D. You must report ringing in your ears immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, it is crucial to avoid activities such as coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose to prevent an increase in intracranial pressure or the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Coughing, sneezing, or nose blowing can strain the surgical site, potentially leading to complications. Lying flat for 24 hours is not typically required after this surgery. Fluid intake should be encouraged to prevent dehydration. Ringing in the ears is not a common complication associated with this type of surgery.

4. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?

• A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision.
• B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements.
• C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff.
• D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.

5. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

• A. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• C. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. In the treatment of hypoglycemia, it is important to administer a specific amount of simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels effectively without causing hyperglycemia. 10 to 15 g of simple carbohydrates, such as glucose tablets, fruit juice, or regular soft drinks, is recommended to rapidly increase blood sugar levels in clients experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either provide too little or too much glucose, which may not effectively treat the hypoglycemic episode or may lead to rebound hyperglycemia.

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