Nursing Elites

1. When implementing a new policy on the unit, what process should a nurse manager follow?

• A. The nurse manager should involve staff members in the decision-making process, gather input, and communicate the reasons for the policy change to ensure buy-in from the team.
• B. The nurse manager should implement the policy change immediately and monitor staff compliance to ensure that the new policy is being followed.
• C. The nurse manager should delegate the implementation of the policy change to a staff member and provide support as needed to ensure that the change is successful.
• D. The nurse manager should communicate the policy change to staff members, provide training as needed, and monitor the implementation process to ensure that the change is effective.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When introducing a new policy on the unit, it is essential for the nurse manager to involve staff members in the decision-making process. This approach helps in gathering input and insights from the team, fostering a sense of ownership and commitment. By communicating the reasons behind the policy change, the nurse manager ensures transparency and promotes understanding among the staff, leading to buy-in and acceptance of the new policy. Choice B is incorrect because implementing a policy change without involving staff and explaining the rationale may lead to resistance or lack of understanding. Choice C is not ideal as delegation without active involvement and communication with the team may result in misunderstandings or incomplete implementation. Choice D lacks the crucial step of involving staff in the decision-making process, which is important for successful policy implementation and team engagement.

2. As a nurse manager rounds on the unit, he speaks with staff, patients, and family members. Later in the day, he is in a meeting with administration. During the conversations, he considers how these interactions impact the care provided to patients on the unit. Which of the following interpersonal activities best describes this manager's actions?

• A. Networking
• B. Employee development
• C. Coaching
• D. Monitoring

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Networking.' Networking involves interacting with others to exchange information and develop professional or social contacts. In this scenario, the nurse manager engages in networking by speaking with staff, patients, family members, and administration to understand their perspectives and build relationships. This activity helps the manager gather insights that can positively impact patient care. Choice B, 'Employee development,' focuses on activities aimed at improving staff skills and performance, which is not the primary focus of the manager's actions described. Choice C, 'Coaching,' involves providing guidance and support to individuals to help them achieve specific goals, which is not explicitly depicted in the scenario. Choice D, 'Monitoring,' typically involves overseeing or supervising activities to ensure compliance with standards or objectives, which does not fully capture the manager's proactive engagement in building relationships and gathering information through interactions.

3. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

4. A client with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that the purpose of this medication is to:

• A. Treat the underlying cause of the disease
• B. Reduce thyroid hormone production
• C. Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors
• D. Increase energy levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps manage symptoms like tachycardia (fast heart rate) and tremors in patients with Graves' disease. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not address the underlying cause of Graves' disease, which is autoimmune in nature. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not directly reduce thyroid hormone production; it mainly targets the symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while propranolol may help with symptoms like tachycardia, it is not intended to increase energy levels.

5. A female client with hypothyroidism (myxedema) is receiving levothyroxine (Synthroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily. Which finding should Nurse Hans recognize as an adverse drug effect?

• A. Dysuria
• B. Leg cramps
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachycardia is a potential adverse effect of levothyroxine, indicating overmedication. Dysuria (painful urination) is not typically associated with levothyroxine. Leg cramps are not a common adverse effect of levothyroxine. Blurred vision is not a typical adverse effect of levothyroxine; instead, it may be a sign of other eye-related conditions or medication side effects.

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