Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of nonmaleficence in nursing practice?

• A. Administering pain medication as prescribed to prevent patient discomfort.
• B. Ensuring that a patient does not receive a treatment that they have refused.
• C. Ensuring that a patient receives appropriate care without causing harm.
• D. Encouraging a patient to express their concerns and fears about a procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle of doing no harm. In nursing practice, ensuring that a patient does not receive a treatment they have refused is an example of nonmaleficence. Choice A focuses on beneficence by providing pain relief. Choice C is more aligned with beneficence as it emphasizes providing appropriate care without harm. Choice D pertains to patient communication but does not directly address the concept of nonmaleficence.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with hypothyroidism. Which of the following clinical findings would the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Weight loss
• C. Cold intolerance
• D. Diaphoresis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cold intolerance is a classic symptom of hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, the body's metabolic rate is decreased, leading to a reduced ability to regulate body temperature. As a result, individuals with hypothyroidism often feel cold, especially in their extremities. Tachycardia (A) is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism due to the increased metabolic rate. Weight loss (B) is also a typical finding in hyperthyroidism, as the body burns calories at a faster rate. Diaphoresis (D), excessive sweating, is not a typical symptom of hypothyroidism.

3. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

• A. Tetanic contractions
• B. Neck vein distention
• C. Weight loss
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

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