Nursing Elites

1. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

• A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
• B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
• C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
• D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

2. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed radioactive iodine therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with hyperthyroidism undergoes radioactive iodine therapy, the treatment aims to reduce thyroid hormone production by destroying thyroid tissue. As a result, there is a high likelihood of developing hypothyroidism as a side effect. Monitoring for hypothyroidism is crucial post-treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the therapeutic goal is to address hyperthyroidism by inducing hypothyroidism through the treatment.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased urine output.' Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and decreased urine output. Therefore, the nurse should expect the client to have decreased urine output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not typically associated with SIADH as it usually leads to dilutional hyponatremia. Hypotension (Choice B) is not a common clinical manifestation of SIADH. Polyuria (Choice D) is the opposite of what is expected in a client with SIADH, who typically presents with decreased urine output.

4. During preoperative teaching for a female client undergoing subtotal thyroidectomy, which statement should the nurse include?

• A. The head of your bed must remain flat for 24 hours after surgery.
• B. You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after surgery.
• C. You won't be able to swallow for the first day or two.
• D. You must avoid hyperextending your neck after surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Instructing the client to avoid hyperextending the neck after thyroid surgery is crucial to prevent stress on the surgical site and reduce the risk of complications such as strain on the incision or damage to the healing tissues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Keeping the head of the bed flat for 24 hours is not necessary after a thyroidectomy; elevation of the head of the bed can actually help reduce swelling and improve comfort. B) Encouraging deep breathing and coughing after surgery is essential to prevent respiratory complications such as pneumonia, so this advice is incorrect. C) Difficulty swallowing after thyroid surgery is not a typical outcome, so this statement is inaccurate and should not be included in the preoperative teaching.

5. The client with DM who is taking insulin develops a fever and becomes confused. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Administer a fever-reducing medication.
• C. Give the client fluids to drink.
• D. Notify the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) taking insulin, the development of fever and confusion may indicate hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Checking the blood glucose level is the priority action in this situation. This will help determine if the symptoms are related to high blood sugar levels, guiding further interventions. Administering a fever-reducing medication (choice B) addresses only the symptom of fever and does not address the underlying cause. Providing fluids to drink (choice C) is important but should come after addressing the potential hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Notifying the health care provider (choice D) can be important, but immediate action to evaluate and manage the client's condition should precede contacting the provider.

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