Nursing Elites

1. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

• A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
• B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
• C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
• D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

2. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being educated by the nurse about the signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following symptoms should the client be instructed to report immediately?

• A. Shakiness
• B. Sweating
• C. Confusion
• D. Increased thirst

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Confusion is a critical symptom of hypoglycemia that may indicate a more severe drop in blood glucose levels. Immediate reporting of confusion is crucial as it could progress rapidly to unconsciousness or seizures, necessitating prompt intervention. Shakiness and sweating are common early signs of hypoglycemia but may not require immediate intervention unless other severe symptoms present. Increased thirst is more indicative of hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, and while it should be monitored, it is not a symptom requiring immediate reporting.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being discharged after receiving initial treatment. What should the nurse emphasize as a crucial instruction?

• A. Take insulin as prescribed, even if you are not eating.
• B. Avoid all forms of physical exercise to prevent hypoglycemia.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly and report any changes.
• D. Stop taking oral antidiabetic medication if your blood glucose levels are normal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly is a critical aspect of managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. This allows the individual to track their blood sugar levels, understand the effectiveness of the treatment plan, and detect any fluctuations promptly. Option A is incorrect because insulin should be taken based on a prescribed schedule that correlates with meals to prevent hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Option B is incorrect as physical exercise is beneficial for managing diabetes but should be done cautiously with adjustments in insulin or food intake. Option D is incorrect because discontinuing oral antidiabetic medications without healthcare provider guidance can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.

4. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider include in the care plan?

• A. Encourage oral fluids
• B. Restrict fluid intake
• C. Administer potassium supplements
• D. Increase sodium intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with SIADH is to restrict fluid intake. SIADH leads to water retention and dilution of sodium levels in the body, resulting in hyponatremia. Restricting fluid intake helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering potassium supplements (Choice C) is not directly related to managing SIADH. Increasing sodium intake (Choice D) is contraindicated because it can worsen hyponatremia in clients with SIADH.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention in a client with DKA is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline for fluid resuscitation. This is crucial to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion, addressing the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA. Administering insulin without addressing the dehydration can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but is not the first priority; potassium levels can shift with fluid resuscitation. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is helpful in assessing acid-base status but is not the initial priority compared to fluid resuscitation.

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