Nursing Elites

1. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

• A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
• B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
• C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
• D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

2. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:

• A. Serum glucose level.
• B. Hair loss.
• C. Bone mineralization.
• D. Menstrual flow.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production which can lead to hyperglycemia. Successful treatment of Cushing's syndrome aims to normalize cortisol levels, resulting in a decline in serum glucose levels. Choice B, hair loss, is not specifically associated with Cushing's syndrome or its treatment. Choice C, bone mineralization, is often compromised in Cushing's syndrome due to the effects of excess cortisol on bones; however, successful treatment would aim to improve bone health rather than decline it. Choice D, menstrual flow, is not directly linked to Cushing's syndrome or its treatment, so a decline in menstrual flow would not be an expected outcome of successful treatment.

3. A client with terminal pancreatic cancer asks questions about a do not resuscitate order. Which of the following statements should be included in the RN's teaching to the client?

• A. When a heart ceases to beat, the client is pronounced clinically dead.
• B. Physicians must write do not resuscitate (DNR) orders.
• C. A DNR order can be written after the healthcare provider has discussed it with the client and family.
• D. A DNR requires a court decision.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A DNR order is typically written after the healthcare provider has discussed the implications with the patient and their family. This ensures that the patient and family are fully informed before making such a critical decision. Choice A is incorrect because pronouncing clinical death is a medical determination, not directly related to DNR orders. Choice B is incorrect because while physicians commonly write DNR orders, the discussion with the patient and family is crucial. Choice D is incorrect because a DNR order does not require a court decision; it is a decision made in collaboration with the healthcare team and the patient or family.

4. The client has undergone a thyroidectomy. Which of the following symptoms would indicate a potential complication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hyperreflexia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypocalcemia is a potential complication of thyroidectomy as it may occur if the parathyroid glands, responsible for calcium regulation, are inadvertently removed or damaged during the procedure. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with thyroidectomy complications. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly seen in hyperthyroidism. Hyperreflexia (exaggerated reflex responses) is not a typical complication of thyroidectomy.

5. A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with DM who has hyperglycemia. The priority nursing diagnosis would be:

• A. High risk for deficient fluid volume
• B. Deficient knowledge: disease process and treatment
• C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
• D. Disabled family coping: compromised

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) experiencing hyperglycemia would be 'High risk for deficient fluid volume.' Hyperglycemia can lead to osmotic diuresis, causing significant fluid loss and an increased risk of deficient fluid volume. This nursing diagnosis addresses the immediate physiological concern related to fluid balance.\n\nChoice B, 'Deficient knowledge: disease process and treatment,' focuses on the client's understanding of DM, which is important but not the priority when the client is at risk of fluid volume deficit.\n\nChoice C, 'Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements,' pertains to inadequate intake of nutrients, which is not the priority concern when fluid volume deficit poses a more immediate threat.\n\nChoice D, 'Disabled family coping: compromised,' addresses a psychosocial aspect and is not the priority over the critical physiological issue of fluid volume deficit in a client with hyperglycemia.

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