a male client has recently undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor dr wong prescribes corticotropin acthar 20 units im qid as a replacement th
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HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

1. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

2. When caring for a female client with a history of hypoglycemia, Nurse Ruby should avoid administering a drug that may potentiate hypoglycemia. Which drug fits this description?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin). Sulfisoxazole is known to potentiate hypoglycemia, making it unsafe for clients with a history of hypoglycemia. Choice B, Mexiletine, is a medication used to treat certain heart rhythm problems and is not associated with hypoglycemia. Choice C, Prednisone, is a corticosteroid and does not potentiate hypoglycemia. Choice D, Lithium carbonate, is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder and does not typically potentiate hypoglycemia. Therefore, the drug that Nurse Ruby should avoid in this case is Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin) to prevent worsening the client's hypoglycemic condition.

3. Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he's impotent and says he's concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a postoperative male client with diabetes mellitus who reports impotence and concerns about its impact on his marriage is to suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. Impotence can have significant emotional and relational effects, and a sex counselor is specifically trained to address such concerns. Encouraging the client to ask questions about personal sexuality (Choice A) may not provide the specialized support needed in this situation. Providing time for privacy (Choice B) is important but may not directly address the client's concerns about impotence. Providing support for the spouse or significant other (Choice C) is valuable but may not be as effective as seeking professional help to address the client's specific issue of impotence.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with Cushing's syndrome are at risk for hyperglycemia due to the effects of cortisol on glucose metabolism. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage hyperglycemia promptly. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) is not necessary unless specifically indicated for another condition, as clients with Cushing's syndrome are prone to fluid imbalances. Administering potassium supplements (choice C) is not appropriate as clients with Cushing's syndrome often have elevated potassium levels due to the effects of cortisol. Encouraging a high-protein diet (choice D) is not recommended as clients with Cushing's syndrome should focus on a balanced diet to manage their condition effectively.

5. Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glipizide should be taken 30 minutes before meals to maximize its glucose-lowering effect.

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