a male client has recently undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor dr wong prescribes corticotropin acthar 20 units im qid as a replacement th
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

1. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

2. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicates an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in the afternoon may coincide with the peak action of NPH insulin, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia. The peak action of NPH insulin typically occurs 4-12 hours after administration, so exercising during this time can further lower blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are better options as they suggest exercising at times that are less likely to overlap with the peak insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia.

3. The client with type 1 DM asks why it is necessary to rotate injection sites when managing insulin therapy. The nurse's best response is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rotating injection sites is necessary to ensure more consistent insulin absorption. This practice helps maintain stable blood glucose levels by preventing the formation of lipohypertrophy (fatty lumps under the skin) at injection sites. Choices A and B are incorrect as the primary purpose of rotating injection sites is not focused on preventing skin irritation or scar tissue buildup. While rotating injection sites may contribute to reducing pain over time, the primary benefit is the consistency in insulin absorption to support glycemic control, making choice D less relevant.

4. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it describes an effective method of communication where a unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement. This approach fosters open dialogue, provides constructive feedback, and promotes professional growth. Choice B is incorrect as it only involves the explanation of departmental policies without engaging in a two-way communication process. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on policy introduction after safety events rather than individual feedback. Choice D is incorrect as it involves discussing safety events with another manager and policy improvement, but it does not directly address individual performance feedback, which is essential for effective communication and professional development.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Cushing's syndrome, hyperglycemia is a common finding due to increased cortisol levels leading to insulin resistance. This can have serious implications such as diabetes mellitus and should be promptly reported for appropriate management. Hypotension (choice A) is more commonly associated with Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome. Weight gain rather than weight loss (choice C) is typically observed in clients with Cushing's syndrome. While hypokalemia (choice D) can occur in Cushing's syndrome due to excess cortisol affecting potassium levels, it is not as critical as hyperglycemia and may not be the priority for immediate reporting.

Similar Questions

A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client:
A nurse manager conducts evaluations with each staff member and reviews the staffing needs for the upcoming year. Which of the following best describes the behavior this manager is engaging in?
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with DM. The nurse instructs the client to include which item in the diet?
Which advice is most beneficial for a new nurse manager?
A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses