a male client has recently undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor dr wong prescribes corticotropin acthar 20 units im qid as a replacement th a male client has recently undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor dr wong prescribes corticotropin acthar 20 units im qid as a replacement th
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HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

1. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

2. A 12-year-old child with type 1 diabetes is under the nurse's care. The child’s parent asks how to prevent hypoglycemia during physical activity. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective way to prevent hypoglycemia during physical activity in a child with type 1 diabetes is to ensure they eat a snack before exercising. Eating a snack before exercise helps maintain blood glucose levels by providing additional glucose for energy during physical activity, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia. Giving extra insulin before exercise (Choice A) can increase the risk of hypoglycemia as it lowers blood glucose levels further. Limiting physical activity (Choice C) is not recommended as exercise is important for overall health. Monitoring blood glucose levels after exercise (Choice D) is essential but does not directly prevent hypoglycemia during physical activity.

3. When a male Korean-American client looks away when asked by the nurse to describe his problem, what is the best initial nursing action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the best initial nursing action is to allow several minutes for the client to respond. This approach respects the cultural norms of the client, as in some cultures, direct eye contact may be perceived as disrespectful or intrusive. By giving the client time to gather his thoughts and respond at his own pace, the nurse promotes effective communication and demonstrates cultural sensitivity. Asking for assistance from social services to find a Korean interpreter (Choice A) may be necessary for further communication but is not the best initial action. Establishing indirect eye contact (Choice B) may still make the client uncomfortable. Repeating the question using simpler language (Choice D) may not address the underlying cultural aspect affecting the client's response.

4. What should the nurse do first for a 6-year-old with asthma showing a prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing, and 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority action in managing an acute asthma exacerbation in a child. Bronchodilators help to relax the muscles around the airways, opening them up and improving breathing. This intervention aims to address the immediate breathing difficulty and should be done promptly to provide relief for the child. Encouraging coughing and deep breaths (choice B) may worsen the child's condition by further constricting the airways. Reporting findings to the healthcare provider (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority in this acute situation. Identifying triggers (choice D) is crucial for long-term asthma management but is not the first step when managing an acute exacerbation.

5. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that indicates a potential airway obstruction, which can be caused by an allergic reaction. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to ensure the client's airway is patent and to prevent respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone sodium but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to airway obstruction indicated by stridor.

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