HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
- B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
- D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.
2. When is the best time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone?
- A. At noon
- B. At bedtime
- C. Early morning
- D. Anytime, at the same time each day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone is early morning. Corticosteroids like prednisone should be taken in the morning to mimic the body's natural hormone release pattern. This timing helps reduce the risk of disrupting the body's internal clock and minimizes the potential for insomnia or other sleep disturbances.
3. The nurse provides medication instructions to an older hypertensive client who is taking 20 mg of lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) orally daily. The nurse evaluates the need for further teaching when the client states which of the following?
- A. I can skip a dose once a week.
- B. I need to change my position slowly.
- C. I take the pill after breakfast each day.
- D. If I get a bad headache, I should call my doctor immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lisinopril should be taken daily as prescribed and not skipped. Skipping doses can lead to ineffective treatment.
4. A clinic nurse prepares to administer an MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine to a child. How is this vaccine best administered?
- A. Intramuscularly in the deltoid muscle
- B. Subcutaneously in the gluteal muscle
- C. Subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm
- D. Intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The MMR vaccine is best administered subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm. This route allows for proper absorption and efficacy of the vaccine while minimizing the risk of injury or discomfort to the child.
5. Insulin glargine (Lantus) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse tells the client that it is best to take the insulin:
- A. 1 hour after each meal
- B. Once daily, at the same time each day
- C. 15 minutes before breakfast, lunch, and dinner
- D. Before each meal, based on the blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin with a duration of action of approximately 24 hours, making it suitable for once-daily dosing at the same time each day. This regimen helps maintain consistent blood glucose levels and simplifies the client's treatment routine. Taking insulin glargine once daily provides basal insulin coverage throughout the day, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia compared to short-acting insulins that are taken before each meal.
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