Nursing Elites

1. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

2. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) is prescribed for a client with pain. Which of the following would the nurse monitor for as a side effect of this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) is an opioid analgesic that can cause various side effects. Common side effects include respiratory depression, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, drowsiness, constipation, and urinary retention. Diarrhea is not a common side effect of Meperidine hydrochloride. Bradycardia and hypertension are not typically associated with this medication. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for urinary retention as a potential side effect of Meperidine hydrochloride.

3. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Increased thirst
• B. Fine hand tremors
• C. Frequent urination
• D. Persistent vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Persistent vomiting can be a sign of lithium toxicity, which requires immediate medical attention. Increased thirst, fine hand tremors, and frequent urination are common side effects of lithium.

4. A client who has been taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis asks the nurse about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should limit my alcohol intake.
• B. I should notify my doctor if I notice a yellowish skin color.
• C. I should take the medication with an empty stomach.
• D. I should notify my doctor if I experience numbness and tingling in my extremities.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Isoniazid (INH) is best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach. However, if gastrointestinal upset occurs, it can be taken with food. Limiting alcohol intake, monitoring for jaundice, and notifying the doctor of peripheral neuropathy symptoms are all appropriate actions while taking INH.

5. During an admission assessment, a client informs the nurse that they take propylthiouracil (PTU) daily. Based on this information, the nurse suspects that the client has a history of:

• A. Myxedema
• B. Graves' disease
• C. Addison's disease
• D. Cushing's syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism, including Graves' disease, which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. The client mentioning the daily use of PTU indicates that they likely have a history of Graves' disease, as this medication helps manage the condition by reducing the production of thyroid hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Graves' disease. Choice A, Myxedema, is incorrect as it refers to a condition of severe hypothyroidism, the opposite of hyperthyroidism. Choices C and D, Addison's disease and Cushing's syndrome, respectively, are unrelated to the use of PTU or hyperthyroidism, making them incorrect choices.

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