Nursing Elites

1. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

2. The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition?

• A. Intestinal obstruction
• B. Peptic ulcer with melena
• C. Diverticulitis with perforation
• D. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoclopramide, also known as Reglan, is commonly used to manage vomiting following cancer chemotherapy. It acts as a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic, aiding in relieving nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Metoclopramide should be avoided in conditions like intestinal obstruction, peptic ulcer with melena, and diverticulitis with perforation due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy.

3. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

4. A client is taking ticlopidine hydrochloride (Ticlid). The nurse tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?

• A. Vitamin C
• B. Vitamin D
• C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• D. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ticlopidine hydrochloride is a platelet aggregation inhibitor. Aspirin or any aspirin-containing product should be avoided as they can precipitate or aggravate bleeding by affecting platelet function and increasing the risk of bleeding complications.

5. A client with hyperlipidemia is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication in the evening.
• B. Report any muscle pain to your healthcare provider.
• C. Avoid increasing your intake of grapefruit juice.
• D. Do not take the medication with a high-fat meal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain can be a sign of a serious side effect of simvastatin (Zocor) known as rhabdomyolysis and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The medication is usually taken in the evening to coincide with the body's natural production of cholesterol. Grapefruit juice should be avoided as it can increase the risk of toxicity by affecting the metabolism of the medication. Additionally, taking simvastatin with a high-fat meal can reduce its effectiveness, so it should be taken without food or with a light meal.

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