Nursing Elites

1. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed prednisone for an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Increase the dose of insulin while taking prednisone.
• B. Take the prednisone with food.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels closely.
• D. Do not discontinue prednisone abruptly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels closely. Prednisone can elevate blood glucose levels, necessitating close monitoring. Adjusting the insulin dose may be necessary, but this should be managed by a healthcare provider. Prednisone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal discomfort and should not be stopped suddenly to prevent adverse effects.

3. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

• A. At bedtime
• B. After lunch
• C. With supper
• D. Before breakfast

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

4. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take the medication at the same time each day.
• C. I will use an electric razor to shave.
• D. I will take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients taking warfarin (Coumadin) should avoid aspirin unless prescribed by their healthcare provider, as it can increase the risk of bleeding. The other statements are correct and do not indicate a need for further teaching. Taking aspirin along with warfarin can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding complications.

5. While taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ), a client should be instructed to report which symptom if it develops during the course of this medication therapy?

• A. Nausea
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Headache
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) should be educated about potential blood disorders associated with the medication. Early signs of these disorders include symptoms like sore throat, fever, and pallor. If the client experiences any of these symptoms, they should promptly notify their healthcare provider. Nausea, diarrhea, and headache are common side effects of TMP-SMZ that usually do not require immediate medical attention.

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