Nursing Elites

1. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

2. While assisting in caring for a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management, a nurse notes the client's absent deep tendon reflexes. What determination should the nurse make based on this data?

• A. The magnesium sulfate is effective.
• B. The infusion rate needs to be increased.
• C. The client is experiencing cerebral edema.
• D. The client is experiencing magnesium toxicity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management exhibits absent deep tendon reflexes, this indicates magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can occur as a complication of magnesium sulfate therapy, leading to suppressed reflexes. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this sign promptly and report it to prevent further complications or harm to the client.

3. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

• A. At bedtime
• B. After lunch
• C. With supper
• D. Before breakfast

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

4. The healthcare provider is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who will be receiving asparaginase (Elspar), an antineoplastic agent. The healthcare provider consults with the registered nurse regarding the administration of the medication if which of the following is documented in the client's history?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Diabetes mellitus
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asparaginase is contraindicated in clients with a history of pancreatitis due to the risk of impairing pancreatic function and causing complications. Therefore, the healthcare provider should consult with the registered nurse to assess the client's history of pancreatitis before administering asparaginase.

5. The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) has been taking misoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which of the following is noted?

• A. Resolved diarrhea
• B. Relief of epigastric pain
• C. Decreased platelet count
• D. Decreased white blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Misoprostol is a gastric protectant administered to clients using NSAIDs to prevent gastric mucosal injury. Relief of epigastric pain signifies the medication's therapeutic effect as it indicates a reduction in gastrointestinal symptoms associated with NSAID use.

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