HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
- B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
- D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.
2. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Fever
- B. Headache
- C. Nausea
- D. Oliguria
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.
3. A client taking ethambutol (Myambutol) understands the instructions provided by the nurse if the client states that he or she will immediately report:
- A. Impaired sense of hearing
- B. Problems with visual acuity
- C. Gastrointestinal (GI) side effects
- D. Orange-red discoloration of body secretions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Problems with visual acuity. Ethambutol is known to cause optic neuritis, leading to a decrease in visual acuity and color discrimination. Therefore, any visual changes should be reported promptly to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because ethambutol does not typically cause impaired sense of hearing, gastrointestinal side effects, or orange-red discoloration of body secretions. It is crucial for clients taking ethambutol to be aware of potential visual disturbances and report them promptly to healthcare providers.
4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients taking metformin (Glucophage) should avoid alcohol as it can increase the risk of lactic acidosis. Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset. While hypoglycemia is less common with metformin compared to other diabetes medications, clients should still be aware of its symptoms.
5. A client has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix), and the nurse is monitoring for adverse effects associated with this medication. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a potential adverse effect? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Nausea
- B. Tinnitus
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to adverse effects such as tinnitus, hypotension, and hypokalemia. While nausea is a common side effect of many medications, it is not typically associated with furosemide. Therefore, the nurse should recognize nausea as a potential adverse effect that doesn't apply to furosemide.
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