HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
- B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
- D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.
2. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Constipation
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Dry cough
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.
3. A client is being monitored while receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) for urinary retention. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Increased peristalsis
- C. Passage of flatus
- D. Urinary output of 50 mL per hour
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is administered to stimulate the bladder and treat urinary retention. The therapeutic effect is indicated by an increased urinary output, as it demonstrates the medication's ability to prompt the bladder to empty. Increased heart rate and passage of flatus are unrelated to the therapeutic effects of bethanechol. Although bethanechol can increase peristalsis, the primary therapeutic goal is to address urinary retention.
4. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available on the nursing unit?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Potassium chloride
- C. Phytonadione (vitamin K)
- D. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, working to reverse its effects in case of excessive bleeding. It should be readily available when administering heparin to manage any potential bleeding complications effectively. Potassium chloride is not the antidote for heparin and is typically used to correct low potassium levels. Phytonadione (vitamin K) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) is used to treat or prevent excessive bleeding but is not the antidote for heparin.
5. Glimepiride (Amaryl) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. A healthcare provider reinforces instructions for the client and advises them to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?
- A. Alcohol
- B. Organ meats
- C. Whole-grain cereals
- D. Carbonated beverages
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Alcohol should be avoided when taking glimepiride (Amaryl) because it can cause a disulfiram-like reaction and enhance the hypoglycemic effects of the medication. Consuming alcohol with glimepiride can lead to symptoms such as flushing, palpitations, nausea, and vomiting. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals on glimepiride therapy to steer clear of alcohol to prevent adverse reactions and maintain optimal medication efficacy.
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