Nursing Elites

1. Glimepiride (Amaryl) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. A healthcare provider reinforces instructions for the client and advises them to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?

• A. Alcohol
• B. Organ meats
• C. Whole-grain cereals
• D. Carbonated beverages

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alcohol should be avoided when taking glimepiride (Amaryl) because it can cause a disulfiram-like reaction and enhance the hypoglycemic effects of the medication. Consuming alcohol with glimepiride can lead to symptoms such as flushing, palpitations, nausea, and vomiting. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals on glimepiride therapy to steer clear of alcohol to prevent adverse reactions and maintain optimal medication efficacy.

2. The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Chest pain
• D. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Vincristine is known to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, resulting in numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Diarrhea, hair loss, and chest pain are not typically associated with vincristine use.

3. In a client with chronic renal failure receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit), which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit of 32%
• B. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• C. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 15 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hematocrit of 32% indicates a therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa in a client with chronic renal failure. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia in these patients by stimulating red blood cell production, leading to an increase in the hematocrit level. Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the response to epoetin alfa therapy.

4. Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Signs of hepatitis
• B. Flu-like syndrome
• C. Low neutrophil count
• D. Vitamin B6 deficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rifabutin is known to cause side effects such as hepatitis, flu-like syndrome, low neutrophil count, and ocular pain or blurred vision. Vitamin B6 deficiency is not associated with rifabutin but is a side effect of isoniazid (INH). Therefore, the nurse should not monitor for Vitamin B6 deficiency when administering rifabutin.

5. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Constipation
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

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