a nurse is caring for a client receiving meperidine demerol for pain management which assessment finding requires immediate action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam

1. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. A client presenting with complaints of not feeling well is seen in a clinic. The client is taking several medications for the control of heart disease and hypertension, including a beta-blocker, digoxin (Lanoxin), and a diuretic. A tentative diagnosis of digoxin toxicity is made. Which of the following assessment data would support this diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Double vision, loss of appetite, and nausea are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs may include bradycardia, visual disturbances, and confusion. These symptoms are indicators that the client may be experiencing adverse effects due to elevated levels of digoxin in the system, requiring immediate medical attention to prevent serious complications.

3. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

4. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psychomotor seizures. The nurse reviews the client's health history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated if which of the following disorders is present?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is contraindicated in liver disease due to its potential to cause hepatic toxicity. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is necessary when using this medication to detect any signs of liver damage.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine (Catapres) transdermal patch. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client should remove the old clonidine (Catapres) patch before applying a new one to prevent overdose. The patch is typically changed every 7 days. Avoiding alcohol consumption is important as it can potentiate the sedative effects of clonidine. It is recommended to rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal drug absorption.

Similar Questions

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A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?
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