Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. A client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) and is being discharged. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Consume potassium-rich foods.
• B. Take the medication in the morning.
• C. Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.
• D. Maintain an adequate fluid intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness. Furosemide (Lasix) is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness. Consuming potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent hypokalemia when taking furosemide. Taking the medication in the morning helps reduce the need for frequent urination at night. Encouraging the client to maintain an adequate fluid intake is crucial to prevent dehydration while on this medication.

3. A healthcare professional prepares to reinforce instructions to a client who is taking allopurinol (Zyloprim). The healthcare professional plans to include which of the following in the instructions?

• A. Instruct the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day.
• B. Instruct the client to take the medication with food.
• C. Inform the client that the effect of the medication will occur immediately.
• D. Instruct the client that, if swelling of the lips occurs, this is a normal expected response.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allopurinol is an antigout medication that works by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. To prevent kidney stones and promote the excretion of uric acid, increased fluid intake is essential. Instructing the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day helps to reduce the risk of kidney stones and assists in the elimination of uric acid, thereby enhancing the effectiveness of allopurinol therapy.

4. A client is receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following potential complications?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bleeding
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant, so the primary potential complication is bleeding. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperkalemia are not direct complications of heparin therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is bleeding, as it is the most significant risk associated with heparin administration.

5. A client has just taken a dose of trimethobenzamide (Tigan). The nurse plans to monitor this client for relief of:

• A. Heartburn
• B. Constipation
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Trimethobenzamide (Tigan) is an antiemetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the nurse would monitor the client for relief of nausea and vomiting after taking this medication.

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