Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. A client is prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Increase your intake of purine-rich foods.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you experience a gout attack.
• D. Take the medication with or without food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps prevent kidney stones which can be a side effect of the medication. It is important for the client to avoid purine-rich foods to help manage gout symptoms. They should continue taking the medication even during a gout attack as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Allopurinol can be taken with or without food, so there is no need to take it on an empty stomach. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as increasing purine-rich foods is not recommended, stopping the medication during a gout attack is not advised, and allopurinol can be taken with or without food.

3. Heparin sodium is prescribed for the client. The nurse expects that the healthcare provider will prescribe which of the following to monitor for a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit level
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that heparin sodium is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels assess red blood cell concentrations and are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin sodium, which affects the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, not heparin.

4. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

• A. At bedtime
• B. After lunch
• C. With supper
• D. Before breakfast

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

5. The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a systemic effect has occurred?

• A. Hyperventilation
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Local pain at the burn site
• D. Local rash at the burn site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperventilation is an indication of a systemic effect of mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) due to its potential to cause acidosis by suppressing renal excretion of acid. If hyperventilation occurs, the medication should be discontinued to prevent further complications.

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