Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?

• A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
• B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
• C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
• D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.

3. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

4. Colcrys (colchicine) is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of gout. The nurse reviews the client's medical history in the health record, knowing that the medication would be contraindicated in which disorder?

• A. Myxedema
• B. Renal failure
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Colchicine is contraindicated in clients with severe gastrointestinal, renal, hepatic, or cardiac disorders, or blood dyscrasias. Renal failure is a condition where the kidneys fail to function adequately, leading to the accumulation of toxins in the body. Since colchicine is contraindicated in clients with renal disorders, including renal failure, it could exacerbate the condition and worsen the client's health. Myxedema, hypothyroidism, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for colchicine use. While these conditions may require caution or monitoring when administering colchicine, they are not absolute contraindications like renal failure.

5. A client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with daily insulin injections. Which information should the nurse teach when carrying out plans for discharge?

• A. Keep insulin vials refrigerated at all times.
• B. Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically.
• C. Increase the amount of insulin before unusual exercise.
• D. Monitor the urine acetone level to determine the insulin dosage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is stabilized with daily insulin injections, it is crucial to rotate the injection sites systematically. This practice helps prevent the development of lipodystrophy, which can affect insulin absorption and lead to inconsistent glucose control. Additionally, rotating sites minimizes discomfort and tissue damage, ensuring optimal insulin delivery and effectiveness.

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