Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for:

• A. Acne
• B. Eczema
• C. Hair loss
• D. Herpes simplex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Azelaic acid (Azelex) is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. It works by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and decreasing the proliferation of keratinocytes in the skin. Therefore, if a client is prescribed azelaic acid, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for acne.

3. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?

• A. Sodium of 140 mEq/L
• B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
• C. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• D. A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus was previously well controlled with daily glyburide (DiaBeta). However, the fasting blood glucose level has recently been in the range of 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone
• B. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• C. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone is known to reduce the effectiveness of oral hypoglycemic medications like glyburide and insulin, which can result in hyperglycemia. Therefore, the addition of prednisone to the client's regimen could have contributed to the elevated fasting blood glucose levels observed.

5. A client has been prescribed cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which food item should the client avoid based on the medication's interaction?

• A. Red meats
• B. Orange juice
• C. Grapefruit juice
• D. Green, leafy vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Grapefruit juice should be avoided when taking cyclosporine because it inhibits the metabolism of the medication, leading to increased blood levels and a higher risk of toxicity. It is important for the client to follow this dietary instruction to ensure the safe and effective use of cyclosporine.

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