Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. A client is taking ticlopidine hydrochloride (Ticlid). The nurse tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?

• A. Vitamin C
• B. Vitamin D
• C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• D. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ticlopidine hydrochloride is a platelet aggregation inhibitor. Aspirin or any aspirin-containing product should be avoided as they can precipitate or aggravate bleeding by affecting platelet function and increasing the risk of bleeding complications.

3. Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a client with osteoporosis. The client taking this medication is instructed to:

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast.
• C. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alendronate (Fosamax) should be taken with a full glass of water after rising in the morning to prevent gastrointestinal side effects and increase absorption. Taking the medication with a full glass of water and in an upright position after waking up helps decrease the risk of esophageal irritation and enhances the drug's effectiveness by ensuring proper absorption in the gastrointestinal tract.

4. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

5. The client has reinforced instructions for taking cholestyramine (Questran). Which statement indicates a need for further instructions?

• A. I will continue taking vitamin supplements.
• B. This medication will help lower my cholesterol.
• C. This medication should only be taken with water.
• D. A high-fiber diet is important while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because cholestyramine should not only be taken with water. Flavored products or fruit juices can improve the taste. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. It is important for the client to continue taking vitamin supplements, understand that cholestyramine helps lower cholesterol, and maintain a high-fiber diet while taking this medication to enhance its effectiveness.

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