HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Constipation
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
2. A client with Crohn's disease is scheduled to receive an infusion of infliximab (Remicade). The nurse assisting in caring for the client should take which action to monitor the effectiveness of treatment?
- A. Monitoring the leukocyte count for 2 days after the infusion
- B. Checking the frequency and consistency of bowel movements
- C. Checking serum liver enzyme levels before and after the infusion
- D. Carrying out a Hematest on gastric fluids after the infusion is completed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of infliximab (Remicade) treatment in a client with Crohn's disease, the nurse should observe the frequency and consistency of bowel movements. Infliximab is an immunomodulator that works to reduce inflammation in the colon, leading to improvements in bowel symptoms such as frequency and consistency. Monitoring these bowel patterns can provide valuable insight into the response to the medication and the overall management of Crohn's disease. Checking the leukocyte count (Choice A) is not specific to monitoring the effectiveness of infliximab for Crohn's disease. Checking serum liver enzyme levels (Choice C) may be important for liver function but does not directly monitor the effectiveness of infliximab. Carrying out a Hematest on gastric fluids (Choice D) is not relevant to monitoring the effectiveness of infliximab in Crohn's disease.
3. When administering etanercept (Enbrel) to a client with rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks, what is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?
- A. Assessing the injection site for itching and edema
- B. Monitoring white blood cell counts and platelet counts
- C. Evaluating for fatigue and joint pain in the client
- D. Checking for a metallic taste in the mouth and loss of appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority when administering etanercept (Enbrel) to a client with rheumatoid arthritis is to monitor white blood cell counts and platelet counts. Etanercept can lead to infections and pancytopenia, making it crucial to assess for changes in these blood parameters to detect any potential complications early on.
4. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?
- A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
- B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
- C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
- D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.
5. The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) has been taking misoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which of the following is noted?
- A. Resolved diarrhea
- B. Relief of epigastric pain
- C. Decreased platelet count
- D. Decreased white blood cell count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Misoprostol is a gastric protectant administered to clients using NSAIDs to prevent gastric mucosal injury. Relief of epigastric pain signifies the medication's therapeutic effect as it indicates a reduction in gastrointestinal symptoms associated with NSAID use.
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