Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. When is the best time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone?

• A. At noon
• B. At bedtime
• C. Early morning
• D. Anytime, at the same time each day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone is early morning. Corticosteroids like prednisone should be taken in the morning to mimic the body's natural hormone release pattern. This timing helps reduce the risk of disrupting the body's internal clock and minimizes the potential for insomnia or other sleep disturbances.

3. Heparin sodium is prescribed for the client. The nurse expects that the healthcare provider will prescribe which of the following to monitor for a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit level
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that heparin sodium is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels assess red blood cell concentrations and are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin sodium, which affects the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, not heparin.

4. The healthcare provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial-thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatment?

• A. The medication is an antibacterial.
• B. The medication will help heal the burn.
• C. The medication will permanently stain my skin.
• D. The medication should be applied directly to the wound.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Silver sulfadiazine is an antibacterial used to treat burns, helping in the healing process. It does not permanently stain the skin. Therefore, the statement indicating a lack of understanding is that the medication will permanently stain the skin.

5. The client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide (Neosar). The nurse is reinforcing medication instructions and advises the client to:

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily.
• C. Decrease sodium intake while taking the medication.
• D. Increase potassium intake while taking the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily. Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a toxic effect. By increasing fluid intake, the client can help prevent this complication by promoting frequent urination, which reduces the concentration of the drug and its metabolites in the bladder. This dilution effect can help reduce the risk of bladder toxicity.

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