Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. In a client with chronic renal failure receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit), which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit of 32%
• B. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• C. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 15 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hematocrit of 32% indicates a therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa in a client with chronic renal failure. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia in these patients by stimulating red blood cell production, leading to an increase in the hematocrit level. Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the response to epoetin alfa therapy.

3. A client is receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine). The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects of the medication and should observe for which of the following?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Constipation
• C. Hypertension
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) stimulates muscarinic receptors, which can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial when administering this medication. Constipation, hypertension, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the effects of bethanechol chloride. Bradycardia is the correct adverse effect to monitor for, making option A the correct answer. Constipation, hypertension, and dry mouth are not commonly seen with bethanechol chloride and are therefore incorrect choices.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute.
• C. Take the medications in the morning.
• D. Weigh yourself daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute, as it could indicate digoxin toxicity. Consuming potassium-rich foods is encouraged due to the potential for furosemide (Lasix) to cause hypokalemia. The medications should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Weighing oneself daily is important to monitor for fluid retention, a crucial aspect in managing heart failure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific teaching point related to digoxin and its potential toxicity.

5. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

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