Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. When providing instructions to a client taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro), which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid taking the medication with milk or antacids.
• B. Take the medication with a multivitamin.
• C. Consume extra dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication with food if gastrointestinal upset occurs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) with milk or antacids. These can interfere with the medication's absorption. Consuming extra dairy products or taking it with a multivitamin is not recommended for the same reason. If gastrointestinal upset occurs, the medication can be taken with food to help alleviate the symptoms.

3. A healthcare professional prepares to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) to a client. Before administering the medication, the professional reviews the action of the medication and understands that it:

• A. Releases bicarbonate in exchange for primarily sodium ions
• B. Releases sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions
• C. Releases potassium ions in exchange for primarily sodium ions
• D. Releases sodium ions in exchange for primarily bicarbonate ions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, such as Kayexalate, is a cation exchange resin that functions by releasing sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions. This medication is commonly used to treat hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood.

4. The client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide (VePesid). The nurse assisting in caring for the client during its administration understands that which side effect is specifically associated with this medication?

• A. Alopecia
• B. Chest pain
• C. Pulmonary fibrosis
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Orthostatic hypotension.' Etoposide is associated with orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur when transitioning from lying down to standing up. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's blood pressure during the infusion to detect and manage this potential side effect.

5. When administering hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) to a client, the nurse should be aware of which of the following concerns?

• A. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia
• B. Increased risk of osteoporosis
• C. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy
• D. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, which can lead to hypokalemia and hyperglycemia. It is also associated with hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia. Being a sulfa-based medication, individuals with a sulfa allergy are at risk for an allergic reaction when taking hydrochlorothiazide. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide can cause hyperkalemia rather than hypouricemia. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct link between hydrochlorothiazide and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because hypoglycemia and penicillin allergy are not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.

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