HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Constipation
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
2. What is the reasonable available distance from all patients to offer Primary Health Care (PHC) services?
- A. Within a 20 Km radius
- B. Within a 15 Km radius
- C. Within a 12 Km radius
- D. Within a 10 Km radius
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is within a 20 Km radius. Primary Health Care services should be accessible within a 20 Km radius to ensure adequate coverage for all patients. This distance allows for a reasonable reach while ensuring that individuals can access essential healthcare services in a timely manner. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they offer distances that may limit accessibility and coverage, potentially leaving some patients without timely access to necessary healthcare.
3. A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Abruptly stop the medication.
- B. Continue the medication at the same dose.
- C. Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week.
- D. Increase the dose of the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Gradually tapering the dose over one to two weeks should be recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias.
4. A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?
- A. Anticholinergics
- B. Beta blockers
- C. Alpha blockers
- D. Diuretics
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.
5. Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care for a client at high risk for the development of postoperative thrombus formation?
- A. Instruct the client in the use of the incentive spirometer.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed during all meals.
- C. Use aseptic technique when changing the dressing.
- D. Encourage frequent ambulation in the hallway.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Thrombus formation is a risk for clients who are immobile postoperatively. Encouraging frequent ambulation helps to prevent stasis in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of thrombus formation. This intervention promotes circulation and prevents blood clot formation, making it the most important intervention in this situation.