Nursing Elites

1. A client has begun therapy with theophylline (Theo-24). The nurse tells the client to limit the intake of which of the following while taking this medication?

• A. Oranges and pineapple
• B. Coffee, cola, and chocolate
• C. Oysters, lobster, and shrimp
• D. Cottage cheese, cream cheese, and dairy creamers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline is a xanthine bronchodilator. Xanthines are found in coffee, cola, and chocolate. These foods should be limited while taking theophylline to prevent potential drug interactions or adverse effects.

2. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?

• A. Sodium of 140 mEq/L
• B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
• C. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• D. A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.

3. The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition?

• A. Intestinal obstruction
• B. Peptic ulcer with melena
• C. Diverticulitis with perforation
• D. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoclopramide, also known as Reglan, is commonly used to manage vomiting following cancer chemotherapy. It acts as a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic, aiding in relieving nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Metoclopramide should be avoided in conditions like intestinal obstruction, peptic ulcer with melena, and diverticulitis with perforation due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy.

4. A health care provider (HCP) writes a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.25 mg daily. The nurse teaches the client about the medication and tells the client that it is important to:

• A. Count the radial and carotid pulses every morning.
• B. Check the blood pressure every morning and evening.
• C. Stop taking the medication if the pulse is higher than 100 beats per minute.
• D. Withhold the medication and call the HCP if the pulse is less than 60 beats per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taking digoxin, monitoring the pulse rate is essential due to its potential effects on heart rate. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, where the pulse rate drops significantly. Withholding the medication and promptly contacting the healthcare provider if the pulse falls below 60 beats per minute is crucial to prevent severe complications and ensure appropriate management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because counting radial and carotid pulses, checking blood pressure, or stopping the medication based on a pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute are not the primary monitoring parameters for a client taking digoxin.

5. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Constipation
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

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