Nursing Elites

1. A client has begun therapy with theophylline (Theo-24). The nurse tells the client to limit the intake of which of the following while taking this medication?

• A. Oranges and pineapple
• B. Coffee, cola, and chocolate
• C. Oysters, lobster, and shrimp
• D. Cottage cheese, cream cheese, and dairy creamers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline is a xanthine bronchodilator. Xanthines are found in coffee, cola, and chocolate. These foods should be limited while taking theophylline to prevent potential drug interactions or adverse effects.

2. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

• A. At bedtime
• B. After lunch
• C. With supper
• D. Before breakfast

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

3. The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (Myleran). Which laboratory value should the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication?

• A. Clotting time
• B. Uric acid level
• C. Potassium level
• D. Blood glucose level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Uric acid level. Busulfan can cause an increase in uric acid levels, leading to hyperuricemia, renal stones, and acute renal failure. Monitoring uric acid levels is crucial to detect and manage potential complications associated with busulfan therapy.

4. A health care provider (HCP) writes a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.25 mg daily. The nurse teaches the client about the medication and tells the client that it is important to:

• A. Count the radial and carotid pulses every morning.
• B. Check the blood pressure every morning and evening.
• C. Stop taking the medication if the pulse is higher than 100 beats per minute.
• D. Withhold the medication and call the HCP if the pulse is less than 60 beats per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taking digoxin, monitoring the pulse rate is essential due to its potential effects on heart rate. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, where the pulse rate drops significantly. Withholding the medication and promptly contacting the healthcare provider if the pulse falls below 60 beats per minute is crucial to prevent severe complications and ensure appropriate management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because counting radial and carotid pulses, checking blood pressure, or stopping the medication based on a pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute are not the primary monitoring parameters for a client taking digoxin.

5. A client is receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following potential complications?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bleeding
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant, so the primary potential complication is bleeding. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperkalemia are not direct complications of heparin therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is bleeding, as it is the most significant risk associated with heparin administration.

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