HESI RN
RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is at risk for nephrotoxicity due to medications. Which of the following serum creatinine results does the healthcare professional document as normal?
- A. 0.2 mg/dL
- B. 1.0 mg/dL
- C. 2.8 mg/dL
- D. 3.9 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The normal serum creatinine level typically ranges from 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. A result of 1.0 mg/dL falls within this normal range. A serum creatinine level of 0.2 mg/dL is abnormally low and may indicate decreased muscle mass or malnutrition. On the other hand, results of 2.8 mg/dL and 3.9 mg/dL are elevated, signifying impaired kidney function and potential nephrotoxicity from medications.
2. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?
- A. A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
- B. A 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and a cholesterol level of 158 (8.8 mmol/L).
- C. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 (3.3 mmol/L) who takes atorvastatin.
- D. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 (10.4 mmol/L).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.
3. A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?
- A. Removing the source of excess hormone should restore the client's libido, erectile function, and fertility.
- B. Potency will be restored, but the client will remain infertile.
- C. Fertility will be restored, but impotence and decreased libido will persist.
- D. Exogenous hormones will be needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.
4. A client is receiving Cilostazol (Pletal) for peripheral arterial disease causing intermittent claudication. The nurse determines this medication is effective when the client reports which of the following?
- A. I am having fewer aches and pains.
- B. I do not have headaches anymore.
- C. I am able to walk further without leg pain.
- D. My toes are turning grayish black in color.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cilostazol improves blood flow to the muscles, which helps alleviate symptoms of intermittent claudication. An improvement in walking distance without leg pain indicates the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A and B are not directly related to the expected outcome of Cilostazol therapy for intermittent claudication. Choice D is concerning for a potential adverse effect and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately.
5. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who will receive oral levofloxacin (Levaquin) to treat pneumonia. The patient takes an oral hypoglycemic medication and uses over-the-counter (OTC) antacids to treat occasional heartburn. The patient reports frequent arthritis pain and takes acetaminophen when needed. Which statement by the nurse is correct when teaching this patient?
- A. You may take antacids with levofloxacin to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
- B. You may take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs) for arthritis pain.
- C. You should monitor your serum glucose more closely while taking levofloxacin.
- D. You should take levofloxacin on an empty stomach to improve absorption.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Levofloxacin may increase the effects of oral hypoglycemic medications, so patients taking these should be advised to monitor their serum glucose levels closely.
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