HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. Which of the following is a key symptom of myocardial infarction (MI)?
- A. Chest pain.
- B. Shortness of breath.
- C. Nausea.
- D. Fatigue.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain. Chest pain is a hallmark symptom of myocardial infarction (MI) due to inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. This pain can be severe, crushing, or squeezing, and may radiate to the left arm, jaw, or back. Shortness of breath (choice B), nausea (choice C), and fatigue (choice D) can accompany MI but are not as specific or characteristic as chest pain in diagnosing this condition. Therefore, chest pain is the primary symptom to recognize for suspected MI.
2. A client is being prepared for a colonoscopy. Into which position does the nurse assist the client for the procedure?
- A. Left Sims' position
- B. Lithotomy position
- C. Knee-chest position
- D. Right Sims' position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a colonoscopy, the client is positioned in the left Sims' position. This position is chosen as it optimally utilizes the client’s anatomy to facilitate the introduction of the colonoscope. The lithotomy position (Choice B) is commonly used for gynecological exams, not colonoscopies. The knee-chest position (Choice C) is typically employed for rectal examinations or certain surgical procedures, not colonoscopies. The right Sims' position (Choice D) is a less common position for colonoscopy compared to the left Sims' position.
3. A client has a urine specific gravity of 1.040. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain a urine culture and sensitivity.
- B. Place the client on restricted fluids.
- C. Assess the client’s creatinine level.
- D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.040 is higher than the normal range (1.005 to 1.030) and can indicate dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow, or the presence of antidiuretic hormone. In this situation, the priority action should be to increase the client's fluid intake to address the high specific gravity. Obtaining a urine culture, placing the client on restricted fluids, or assessing the creatinine level would not directly address the underlying issue of high urine specific gravity caused by dehydration or other factors.
4. During nasotracheal suctioning, which of the following observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.
- A. The client becomes cyanotic.
- B. Secretions are bloody.
- C. The client gags during the procedure.
- D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During nasotracheal suctioning, the client gagging during the procedure is a cause for concern as it can indicate discomfort or potential airway obstruction. Cyanosis, bloody secretions, or the removal of clear to opaque secretions are expected observations that the nurse should monitor for, but gagging indicates a need for immediate intervention to ensure the safety and comfort of the client. Cyanosis and bloody secretions can signify oxygenation issues and potential complications, while the removal of secretions is the goal of the suctioning procedure.
5. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following is a common complication?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hypernatremia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Hyperphosphatemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a common complication in chronic kidney disease due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. As kidney function declines, potassium levels may increase, leading to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels), hypocalcemia (low calcium levels), and hyperphosphatemia (elevated phosphate levels) are not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, the correct answer is hyperkalemia.
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