HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. A client is learning how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which action, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. Withdraws the NPH insulin first
- B. Withdraws the regular insulin first
- C. Injects air into the NPH insulin vial first
- D. Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When mixing regular insulin with another insulin preparation, it is crucial to withdraw the regular insulin first to prevent contamination. NPH insulin should be drawn after the regular insulin to maintain the integrity of each insulin type. Therefore, if the client withdraws the NPH insulin first, it indicates the need for further teaching. Choice B is correct as withdrawing regular insulin first is the appropriate step. Choice C is incorrect as air should be injected into the vial containing the regular insulin to maintain pressure. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial is a correct step in preparing the insulin for withdrawal.
2. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
- B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
- D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.
3. The healthcare provider is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who will be receiving asparaginase (Elspar), an antineoplastic agent. The healthcare provider consults with the registered nurse regarding the administration of the medication if which of the following is documented in the client's history?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Asparaginase is contraindicated in clients with a history of pancreatitis due to the risk of impairing pancreatic function and causing complications. Therefore, the healthcare provider should consult with the registered nurse to assess the client's history of pancreatitis before administering asparaginase.
4. A client is being taught about the use of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will sit or lie down when I take the medication.
- B. I can take up to three tablets, 5 minutes apart, if needed.
- C. I will call 911 if my chest pain is not relieved after taking three tablets.
- D. I will keep the medication in its original dark container.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct administration of nitroglycerin for angina is to take up to three tablets, 5 minutes apart. If the chest pain persists after the third tablet, emergency medical services should be called. Taking more than three tablets or reducing the time interval between doses may lead to hypotension and indicates a need for further teaching.
5. A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that:
- A. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
- B. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide is less expensive, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
- D. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The combination of triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide is used because triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which helps retain potassium, while hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic, which promotes potassium excretion. This combination helps balance potassium levels in the body, preventing imbalances that can occur when using potassium-losing diuretics alone.
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