HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI Quizlet
1. Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?
- A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
- B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
- C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
- D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.
2. A nurse reinforces discharge instructions to a postoperative client who is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Which statement, if made by the client, reflects the need for further teaching?
- A. I will take my pills every day at the same time.
- B. I will be certain to avoid alcohol consumption.
- C. I have already called my family to pick up a Medic-Alert bracelet.
- D. I will take Ecotrin (enteric-coated aspirin) for my headaches because it is coated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ecotrin is an aspirin-containing product and should be avoided. Clients should avoid alcohol consumption, take prescribed medication at the same time each day, and use a Medic-Alert bracelet for emergency information.
3. Glimepiride (Amaryl) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. A healthcare provider reinforces instructions for the client and advises them to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?
- A. Alcohol
- B. Organ meats
- C. Whole-grain cereals
- D. Carbonated beverages
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Alcohol should be avoided when taking glimepiride (Amaryl) because it can cause a disulfiram-like reaction and enhance the hypoglycemic effects of the medication. Consuming alcohol with glimepiride can lead to symptoms such as flushing, palpitations, nausea, and vomiting. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals on glimepiride therapy to steer clear of alcohol to prevent adverse reactions and maintain optimal medication efficacy.
4. A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that:
- A. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
- B. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide is less expensive, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
- D. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The combination of triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide is used because triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which helps retain potassium, while hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic, which promotes potassium excretion. This combination helps balance potassium levels in the body, preventing imbalances that can occur when using potassium-losing diuretics alone.
5. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:
- A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
- B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
- C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
- D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.
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