Nursing Elites

1. Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?

• A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
• B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
• C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
• D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.

2. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

• A. Monitoring weight loss
• B. Monitoring temperature
• C. Monitoring blood pressure
• D. Monitoring potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

3. A nurse is providing instructions to an adolescent who has a history of seizures and is taking an anticonvulsant medication. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the instructions?

• A. I will never be able to drive a car.
• B. My anticonvulsant medication will clear up my skin.
• C. I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication.
• D. If I forget my morning medication, I can take two pills at bedtime.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication.' Alcohol can lower the seizure threshold and should be avoided by individuals taking anticonvulsants. Choice A is incorrect because it is an extreme statement and not necessary for someone taking anticonvulsants. Choice B is incorrect as anticonvulsant medications are not used to clear skin conditions. Choice D is incorrect because doubling up medication doses can be harmful and should not be done without healthcare provider approval.

4. Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history?

• A. Neuralgia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Use of nitroglycerin
• D. Use of multivitamins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide and is contraindicated with the concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Using nitroglycerin together with Viagra can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse, making it unsafe to combine both medications.

5. The client has reinforced instructions for taking cholestyramine (Questran). Which statement indicates a need for further instructions?

• A. I will continue taking vitamin supplements.
• B. This medication will help lower my cholesterol.
• C. This medication should only be taken with water.
• D. A high-fiber diet is important while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because cholestyramine should not only be taken with water. Flavored products or fruit juices can improve the taste. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. It is important for the client to continue taking vitamin supplements, understand that cholestyramine helps lower cholesterol, and maintain a high-fiber diet while taking this medication to enhance its effectiveness.

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