HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI Quizlet
1. Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?
- A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
- B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
- C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
- D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.
2. Megestrol acetate (Megace), an antineoplastic medication, is prescribed for a client with metastatic endometrial carcinoma. The nurse reviews the client's history and contacts the registered nurse if which diagnosis is documented in the client's history?
- A. Gout
- B. Asthma
- C. Thrombophlebitis
- D. Myocardial infarction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Megestrol acetate can increase the risk of thromboembolic events. Clients with a history of thrombophlebitis should not receive this medication due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events. Therefore, the nurse should contact the registered nurse if thrombophlebitis is documented in the client's history to ensure appropriate medication management.
3. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) is prescribed for a client for symptomatic relief of pain resulting from a lower urinary tract infection. The nurse reinforces to the client:
- A. To take the medication after meals
- B. To take the medication before meals
- C. To discontinue the medication if a headache occurs
- D. That a reddish-orange discoloration of the urine may occur
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client that a reddish-orange discoloration of urine may occur. The nurse should also educate the client that this discoloration can stain fabric. It is recommended to take the medication after meals to reduce the possibility of gastrointestinal upset. While a headache is an occasional side effect of the medication, it does not warrant discontinuation of the medication.
4. A healthcare professional prepares to reinforce instructions to a client who is taking allopurinol (Zyloprim). The healthcare professional plans to include which of the following in the instructions?
- A. Instruct the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day.
- B. Instruct the client to take the medication with food.
- C. Inform the client that the effect of the medication will occur immediately.
- D. Instruct the client that, if swelling of the lips occurs, this is a normal expected response.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Allopurinol is an antigout medication that works by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. To prevent kidney stones and promote the excretion of uric acid, increased fluid intake is essential. Instructing the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day helps to reduce the risk of kidney stones and assists in the elimination of uric acid, thereby enhancing the effectiveness of allopurinol therapy.
5. When is the best time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone?
- A. At noon
- B. At bedtime
- C. Early morning
- D. Anytime, at the same time each day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone is early morning. Corticosteroids like prednisone should be taken in the morning to mimic the body's natural hormone release pattern. This timing helps reduce the risk of disrupting the body's internal clock and minimizes the potential for insomnia or other sleep disturbances.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access