Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
• D. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low serum potassium level increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with low potassium levels because potassium is crucial for proper heart function. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate an increased risk of digoxin toxicity.

2. A 14-year-old girl with asthma complains of feeling nervous and jittery after a respiratory therapy bronchodilator treatment. What explanation is best for the nurse to provide to this adolescent?

• A. Nervousness should disappear when hypoxia is relieved after several bronchodilator treatments
• B. Tremors result from the rapid dilation of the bronchioles and an increased heart rate
• C. A fast heart rate and jitteriness are side effects of the bronchodilator treatment containing albuterol
• D. Excessive coughing, which causes tachypnea and anxiety, result from the use of bronchodilators

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a fast heart rate and jitteriness are common side effects of bronchodilators like albuterol. Choice A is incorrect as nervousness is more likely a side effect of the medication than solely related to hypoxia. Choice B is incorrect as it provides a partial explanation focusing only on tremors and heart rate, not mentioning jitteriness. Choice D is incorrect because excessive coughing and tachypnea are not typically associated with bronchodilator use; instead, they may indicate inadequate relief or other issues.

3. The nurse observes a client in a wheelchair with a vest restraint in place. What nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Assess the need for continued restraint
• B. Check the client for urinary incontinence
• C. Determine skin integrity under the vest
• D. Perform range-of-motion exercises on extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the need for continued restraint. This is the most important nursing intervention as it ensures the client's safety and autonomy. Checking for urinary incontinence (Choice B) may be important but is not the priority in this situation. Determining skin integrity under the vest (Choice C) is essential but not as crucial as assessing the need for continued restraint. Performing range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is important for client mobility but not the priority when a restraint is in place.

4. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
• B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
• C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
• D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.

5. A client who has a flaccid bladder is placed on a bladder training program. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?

• A. Use manual pressure to express urine
• B. Perform the Crede maneuver
• C. Apply an external urinary drainage device
• D. Take a warm sitz bath twice a day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform the Crede maneuver. The Crede maneuver is a technique used to manage a flaccid bladder by applying manual pressure over the bladder area to assist in the expulsion of urine. This technique helps promote bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because using manual pressure to express urine is not a standardized technique and may cause harm. Choice C is incorrect as applying an external urinary drainage device does not address the need for bladder training. Choice D is unrelated to bladder training for a flaccid bladder.

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