Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care of a client who has had a stroke. The client is experiencing severe dysphagia with choking and coughing while eating. Which of the following nutritional therapies should the nurse expect to include in the plan of care?

• A. NPO until dysphagia subsides
• B. Supplements via NG tube
• C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition
• D. Mechanical soft diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mechanical soft diet. A mechanical soft diet is appropriate for clients with severe dysphagia as it helps reduce the risk of choking and aspiration by providing food that is easier to swallow. Choice A, NPO until dysphagia subsides, may be necessary initially but is not a long-term solution. Choice B, supplements via NG tube, may be considered if the client is unable to meet their nutritional needs orally, but it does not address the texture modification needed for dysphagia. Choice C, initiation of total parenteral nutrition, is typically reserved for clients who cannot tolerate any oral intake and is not the first-line option for dysphagia management.

2. A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the protein level in urine
• B. Have the client turn to the left side
• C. Take the temperature
• D. Monitor the urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of preeclampsia with increasing blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to have the client turn to the left side. This position helps improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, reducing the risk of complications. Checking the protein level in urine (Choice A) is important for assessing preeclampsia but not the immediate priority when blood pressure is increasing. Taking the temperature (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing increased blood pressure in preeclampsia. Monitoring urine output (Choice D) is essential but not the first action to take when blood pressure is rising.

3. A client has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of these nursing diagnoses should receive the highest priority?

• A. Risk for injury related to exophthalmos
• B. Impaired social interaction related to emotional lability
• C. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to hypermetabolism
• D. Activity intolerance related to fatigue

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Activity intolerance related to fatigue.' This nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority for a client with hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism often leads to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and muscle discomfort, which can significantly impact the client's ability to perform daily activities. Addressing activity intolerance is crucial to prevent exacerbation of symptoms and promote the client's overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are important nursing diagnoses as well, but in the context of hyperthyroidism, addressing activity intolerance takes precedence over the risk for injury related to exophthalmos, impaired social interaction related to emotional lability, and imbalanced nutrition due to hypermetabolism.

4. Which of these findings would the nurse most closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?

• A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
• B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips
• C. Hypoactivity
• D. A heart rate between 140 to 160

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips is a classic sign of anemia in infants, indicating a lack of sufficient red blood cells. This finding is due to decreased hemoglobin levels, which causes reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to anemia in infants. While a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL may be within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant, the presence of pale mucosa is a more indicative sign of anemia.

5. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?

• A. Bruising at the operative site
• B. Elevated heart rate
• C. Decreased platelet count
• D. No bowel movement for 3 days

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.

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