HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. A client with type 1 DM is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should prioritize which action?
- A. Administering intravenous fluids.
- B. Administering oral glucose.
- C. Administering a fever-reducing medication.
- D. Administering oxygen therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering intravenous fluids is the priority in treating DKA for several reasons. DKA is characterized by severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to hyperglycemia. IV fluids help to correct dehydration, restore electrolyte balance, and decrease blood glucose levels. Administering oral glucose (Choice B) would be contraindicated in DKA as the primary issue is high blood glucose levels. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice C) is not the priority in managing DKA. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances take precedence in the management of DKA.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased urine output.' Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and decreased urine output. Therefore, the nurse should expect the client to have decreased urine output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not typically associated with SIADH as it usually leads to dilutional hyponatremia. Hypotension (Choice B) is not a common clinical manifestation of SIADH. Polyuria (Choice D) is the opposite of what is expected in a client with SIADH, who typically presents with decreased urine output.
3. A client with DM is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should plan to:
- A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period.
- B. Give the client a regular diet as ordered.
- C. Have the client stop taking insulin 48 hours before surgery.
- D. Hold the client's insulin on the morning of surgery.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period. For a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) scheduled for surgery, it is essential to closely monitor blood glucose levels to prevent hypo- or hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because giving the client a regular diet as ordered may not address the specific needs related to managing blood glucose levels in the perioperative period. Choice C is incorrect as abruptly stopping insulin 48 hours before surgery can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels, which is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because holding the client's insulin on the morning of surgery can also disrupt blood sugar control, potentially leading to complications during the perioperative period.
4. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
- A. Tetanic contractions
- B. Neck vein distention
- C. Weight loss
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.
5. The client has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Administer hypertonic saline
- C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
- D. Restrict oral fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. This is because SIADH leads to excessive production of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. By restricting oral fluids, the nurse helps prevent further water retention and imbalance of electrolytes. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering hypertonic saline (Choice B) is not the primary treatment for SIADH, as it may worsen the imbalance. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (Choice C) is not appropriate since SIADH leads to water retention, not dehydration.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access