HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. A client who underwent surgery and experienced significant blood loss is being cared for by a nurse. Which findings by the nurse should prompt immediate action to prevent acute kidney injury? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours
- B. Large amount of sediment in the urine
- C. A & B
- D. Amber, odorless urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must monitor for signs of acute kidney injury in a postoperative client who had major blood loss. Low urine output, presence of sediment in the urine, and low blood pressure should raise concerns and be reported to the healthcare provider promptly. Postoperatively, assessing urine characteristics is crucial. Sediment, hematuria, and urine output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for 3 to 4 hours should be reported. While a urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours is low, it should be compared to the recommended 0.5 mL/kg/hour over a longer period. Perfusion to the kidneys is a priority, hence the importance of addressing low blood pressure. Amber, odorless urine is considered normal and does not indicate an immediate concern for acute kidney injury, unlike low urine output and presence of sediment.
2. A client with chronic renal failure is being treated with sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following?
- A. Hyponatremia.
- B. Hypokalemia.
- C. Hyperkalemia.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperkalemia. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat high potassium levels (hyperkalemia) by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, which is then eliminated through the feces. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for changes in potassium levels to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is not associated with causing hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypocalcemia.
3. A client who is postmenopausal and has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months asks, “I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?” How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your immune system becomes less effective as you age.
- B. Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection.
- C. You should be more careful with your personal hygiene in this area.
- D. It is likely that you have an untreated sexually transmitted disease.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Low estrogen levels in postmenopausal women decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area, causing tissue changes that predispose them to infection, including urethritis. This is a common reason for urethritis in postmenopausal women. While immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases can cause urethritis, the most likely reason in this case is the low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene practices are usually not a significant factor in the development of urethritis.
4. For a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) of the lower extremities who is trying to manage their condition well, which routine should the nurse evaluate as appropriate?
- A. Resting with the legs elevated above the level of the heart.
- B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day.
- C. Minimizing activity.
- D. Wearing antiembolism stockings at all times when out of bed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day is appropriate for clients with PVD as it helps stimulate collateral circulation and improve blood flow. Choice A is incorrect because while elevating the legs can help with symptoms temporarily, it is not as effective as walking for improving circulation. Choice C, minimizing activity, is not recommended as it can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms. Choice D, wearing antiembolism stockings, is not specifically indicated for PVD and may not address the underlying circulation issues.
5. A client with diabetes begins to cry and says, 'I just cannot stand the thought of having to give myself a shot every day.' Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse?
- A. If you do not give yourself your insulin shots, you will die.
- B. We can teach your daughter to give the shots so you will not have to do it.
- C. I can arrange to have a home care nurse give you the shots every day.
- D. What is it about giving yourself the insulin shots that bothers you?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is option D because it is an open-ended question that allows the client to express their feelings and concerns. This approach facilitates a therapeutic communication process by encouraging the client to verbalize their thoughts, emotions, and fears related to giving themselves insulin shots. Option A is incorrect as it uses a fear-inducing statement that may not be helpful in addressing the client's emotional needs. Option B assumes involvement of a family member without exploring the client's feelings further. Option C offers a solution without addressing the client's underlying concerns and emotions, potentially overlooking essential aspects of client-centered care.
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