HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. A client who underwent surgery and experienced significant blood loss is being cared for by a nurse. Which findings by the nurse should prompt immediate action to prevent acute kidney injury? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours
- B. Large amount of sediment in the urine
- C. A & B
- D. Amber, odorless urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must monitor for signs of acute kidney injury in a postoperative client who had major blood loss. Low urine output, presence of sediment in the urine, and low blood pressure should raise concerns and be reported to the healthcare provider promptly. Postoperatively, assessing urine characteristics is crucial. Sediment, hematuria, and urine output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for 3 to 4 hours should be reported. While a urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours is low, it should be compared to the recommended 0.5 mL/kg/hour over a longer period. Perfusion to the kidneys is a priority, hence the importance of addressing low blood pressure. Amber, odorless urine is considered normal and does not indicate an immediate concern for acute kidney injury, unlike low urine output and presence of sediment.
2. The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I may take antacids 2 hours before taking this drug.
- B. I should take acetaminophen for fever or mild pain.
- C. I should expect diarrhea to be a common, mild side effect.
- D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this drug.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Azithromycin peak levels may be reduced by antacids when taken at the same time, so patients should be cautioned to take antacids 2 hours before or 2 hours after taking the drug. Choice B is incorrect because high-dose azithromycin carries a risk for hepatotoxicity when taken with other potentially hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea may indicate pseudomembranous colitis and should be reported, not expected as a common mild side effect. Choice D is incorrect; there is no restriction for dairy products while taking azithromycin.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:
- A. Atrophy.
- B. Contraction.
- C. Gangrene.
- D. Rubor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.
4. A patient is diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumonia. Which antibiotic will the nurse expect the provider to order to treat this infection?
- A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
- B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
- C. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
- D. Fidaxomicin (Dificid)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Erythromycin is the drug of choice for treating Mycoplasma pneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumonia is typically sensitive to macrolide antibiotics, with erythromycin being one of the first-line agents. Azithromycin and clarithromycin are also effective in treating Mycoplasma pneumonia, but erythromycin is specifically mentioned as the drug of choice in this context. Fidaxomicin, on the other hand, is not indicated for the treatment of Mycoplasma pneumonia and is primarily used to treat Clostridium difficile infections.
5. When performing a health history on a patient who is to begin receiving a thiazide diuretic to treat heart failure, the nurse will be concerned about a history of which condition?
- A. Asthma
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Gout
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics block uric acid secretion, leading to elevated levels that can contribute to gout. Therefore, patients with a history of gout should take thiazide diuretics with caution. Asthma (Choice A), Glaucoma (Choice B), and Hypertension (Choice D) are not directly contraindicated with thiazide diuretics, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.
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