HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about foods that enhance iron absorption when consumed with nonheme iron with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Tomato juice
- B. Tea
- C. Milk
- D. Dried beans
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Tomato juice. Tomato juice is high in vitamin C, which enhances the absorption of nonheme iron from foods. Vitamin C helps convert nonheme iron to a form that is easier for the body to absorb. Tea (choice B) contains tannins that can inhibit iron absorption. Milk (choice C) contains calcium, which can interfere with iron absorption. Dried beans (choice D) are a good source of nonheme iron but do not enhance iron absorption when consumed with nonheme iron.
2. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect.
- B. Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure.
- C. This provides information on the amount of sodium allowed in the diet.
- D. It will indicate the need to institute anti-parkinsonian drugs.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial when clients are receiving antipsychotic drugs since it is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to symptoms like dizziness and falls, making it essential to monitor blood pressure regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because most antipsychotic drugs do not typically cause elevated blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to the amount of sodium in the diet, and blood pressure monitoring is not primarily used to determine the need for anti-parkinsonian drugs in clients receiving antipsychotic medications.
3. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?
- A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
- B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
- D. Monitoring the client's intake and output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.
4. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?
- A. Bruising at the operative site
- B. Elevated heart rate
- C. Decreased platelet count
- D. No bowel movement for 3 days
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.
5. A client with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Which of these assessments is the highest priority for the nurse to perform?
- A. Auscultation of breath sounds
- B. Measurement of peak expiratory flow
- C. Observation of the client's use of accessory muscles
- D. Assessment of the client's skin color
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Auscultation of breath sounds is the highest priority assessment in a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing. It helps the nurse evaluate the severity of the asthma exacerbation by listening for wheezing, crackles, or decreased breath sounds. This assessment guides treatment decisions, such as administering bronchodilators or oxygen therapy. Measurement of peak expiratory flow, although important in assessing asthma severity, may not be feasible in an emergency situation where immediate intervention is needed. Observation of accessory muscle use and assessment of skin color are also important assessments in asthma exacerbation, but auscultation of breath sounds takes precedence in determining the need for urgent interventions.
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