a nurse is reinforcing teaching about foods that enhance iron absorption when consumed with nonheme iron with a client who has iron deficiency anemia
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about foods that enhance iron absorption when consumed with nonheme iron with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Tomato juice. Tomato juice is high in vitamin C, which enhances the absorption of nonheme iron from foods. Vitamin C helps convert nonheme iron to a form that is easier for the body to absorb. Tea (choice B) contains tannins that can inhibit iron absorption. Milk (choice C) contains calcium, which can interfere with iron absorption. Dried beans (choice D) are a good source of nonheme iron but do not enhance iron absorption when consumed with nonheme iron.

2. What nursing assessment of a paralyzed client would indicate the probable presence of a fecal impaction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Oozing liquid stool.' In a paralyzed client, oozing liquid stool is a common sign of fecal impaction. This occurrence requires prompt intervention to prevent complications. Choice A, 'Presence of blood in stools,' is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than fecal impaction. Choice C, 'Continuous rumbling flatulence,' is associated with gas movement in the intestines and not specifically linked to fecal impaction. Choice D, 'Absence of bowel movements,' could be a sign of constipation but does not directly point towards fecal impaction.

3. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

4. A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The tube will remove excess air from your chest.' In a spontaneous pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse. The chest tube is inserted to remove this excess air, allowing the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of a chest tube in pneumothorax is to evacuate air, not fluid, control air entry, or seal a lung hole.

5. Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, a preschooler with intermittent alertness. This client may not have the cognitive ability to effectively use a PCA pump due to their age and alertness level. They may not understand how to self-administer the analgesia. Choices A, B, and C are more appropriate candidates for PCA as they are likely to have better comprehension and ability to operate the PCA pump compared to a preschooler with intermittent alertness.

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