Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:

• A. Atrophy.
• B. Contraction.
• C. Gangrene.
• D. Rubor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.

2. In a patient with diabetes, which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?

• A. Polydipsia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Dry skin
• D. Sweating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sweating is a common sign of hypoglycemia in patients with diabetes. When blood sugar levels drop too low, the body releases stress hormones like adrenaline, leading to symptoms such as sweating, shakiness, and palpitations. Polydipsia (excessive thirst) and polyuria (excessive urination) are more commonly associated with hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels) in diabetes. Dry skin is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia.

3. Four hours following surgical repair of a compound fracture of the right ulna, the nurse is unable to palpate the client's right radial pulse. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately.
• B. Complete a neurovascular assessment of the right hand.
• C. Elevate the client's right hand on one or two pillows.
• D. Measure the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Completing a neurovascular assessment of the right hand is the priority in this situation. This assessment will help determine the circulation, sensation, and movement of the affected limb, ensuring there are no complications like compartment syndrome or impaired perfusion. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice A) might be necessary but should come after assessing the client's neurovascular status. Elevating the client's right hand (Choice C) can be helpful in some cases but should not precede a neurovascular assessment. Measuring the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate (Choice D) is important but not the priority when assessing a potential vascular compromise in the limb.

4. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells.
• B. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics.
• C. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client’s urine for renal calculi.
• D. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.

5. The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported by the client supports this diagnosis?

• A. Frequent use of chewable and liquid antacids for indigestion
• B. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea after eating spicy foods
• C. Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain
• D. Marked weight loss and appetite over the last 3 to 4 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain.' This symptom is a classic presentation of peptic ulcer disease. Antacids (choice A) may provide relief but do not confirm the diagnosis. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea (choice B) are more suggestive of other conditions like irritable bowel syndrome. Weight loss and appetite changes (choice D) are non-specific and could be related to various health issues.

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