Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:

• A. Atrophy.
• B. Contraction.
• C. Gangrene.
• D. Rubor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.

2. A client receives a prescription for 1 liter of lactated Ringer's intravenously to be infused over 6 hours. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is needed, round to the nearest whole number.)

• A. 167 mL/hr
• B. 200 mL/hr
• C. 83 mL/hr
• D. 111 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct infusion rate is 167 mL/hr. This is calculated by dividing the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time (6 hours), resulting in 166.67 mL/hr, which should be rounded to the nearest whole number as 167 mL/hr. This calculation ensures a steady infusion rate over the specified time frame. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the volume and time provided in the prescription.

3. A client with a chest tube attached to a closed drainage system has undergone a chest x-ray, which revealed that the affected lung is fully reexpanded. The nurse anticipates that the next assessment of the chest tube system will reveal:

• A. No fluctuation in the water seal chamber
• B. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
• C. Increased drainage in the collection chamber
• D. Continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the client's lung is fully reexpanded, the chest tube drainage system will no longer be actively draining, and there will be no fluctuation in the water seal chamber. Option B, continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, indicates an air leak in the system, which is not expected when the lung is fully expanded. Option C, increased drainage in the collection chamber, would not be expected when the lung is reexpanded as there should be minimal to no drainage. Option D, continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber, would not be appropriate when the lung is fully reexpanded and the chest tube is typically on a water seal system at this point to promote reexpansion and prevent air from entering the pleural space.

4. The client has been managing angina episodes with nitroglycerin. Which of the following indicates the drug is effective?

• A. Decreased chest pain.
• B. Increased blood pressure.
• C. Decreased blood pressure.
• D. Decreased heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption, which helps to reduce chest pain caused by angina. Therefore, a reduction in chest pain is a positive indicator of the drug's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not typically increase blood pressure or heart rate; instead, it often causes a decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation and may cause a reflex tachycardia (increased heart rate) as a compensatory response to lowered blood pressure.

5. The client with chronic renal failure is on a fluid restriction. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. I will limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• B. I can drink as much fluid as I want as long as I take my medication.
• C. I will skip dialysis sessions if I feel tired.
• D. I will limit my fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the need to limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload, which is crucial in managing chronic renal failure. Adequate fluid restriction is essential to prevent complications such as fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as it promotes excessive fluid intake, which can worsen the client's condition by putting additional stress on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as skipping dialysis sessions can lead to a buildup of toxins in the body, worsening renal failure and potentially leading to life-threatening complications. Choice D is incorrect because limiting fluid intake to a specific volume may not be appropriate for all clients and can vary depending on individual needs, medical condition, and healthcare provider recommendations.

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