HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. A client has an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess the client’s dietary habits.
- B. Inquire about the client's use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
- C. Hold the client’s metformin (Glucophage).
- D. Contact the health care provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio can indicate various conditions such as dehydration, urinary obstruction, catabolism, or a high-protein diet. The initial action the nurse should take is to assess the client’s dietary habits to determine if the elevated ratio is related to diet. Inquiring about the use of NSAIDs is important as they can impact kidney function, but dietary causes should be ruled out first. Holding metformin or contacting the health care provider without assessing the dietary habits would be premature actions as they may not address the underlying cause of the elevated BUN/creatinine ratio.
2. A client is receiving intermittent bolus feedings via a nasogastric tube. In which position should the nurse place the client once the feeding is complete?
- A. Supine
- B. Head of bed flat
- C. Left lateral position
- D. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After intermittent bolus feedings through a nasogastric tube, the correct position for the client is to keep the head of the bed flat. This position helps prevent vomiting and aspiration. Placing the client in a supine position (choice A) can increase the risk of aspiration. The left lateral position (choice C) is not typically used after nasogastric tube feedings. Elevating the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees (choice D) is suitable for continuous tube feedings to reduce the risk of aspiration, but for intermittent bolus feedings, keeping the head of the bed flat is preferred to prevent regurgitation and aspiration.
3. The nurse assesses a client who is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and observes that the client's eyeballs are protuberant, causing a wide-eyed appearance and eye discomfort. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Assess for signs of increased intracranial pressure
- B. Prepare to administer intravenous levothyroxine
- C. Review the client's serum electrolyte values
- D. Obtain a prescription for artificial tear drops
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, eye discomfort due to protuberant eyeballs (exophthalmos) can be alleviated by using artificial tear drops. These drops help prevent complications associated with dry eyes and promote comfort. Assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to the client's eye discomfort from hyperthyroidism. Administering intravenous levothyroxine (Choice B) is not the appropriate intervention for managing eye discomfort in hyperthyroidism. Reviewing serum electrolyte values (Choice C) is important in hyperthyroidism but is not directly addressing the client's current eye discomfort and protuberant eyeballs.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which finding is most important for the nurse to respond to first?
- A. Potassium 6.0 mEq/L.
- B. Daily urine output of 400 ml.
- C. Peripheral neuropathy.
- D. Uremic fetor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a critical electrolyte imbalance in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it the priority finding to address. Choice B, a daily urine output of 400 ml, may indicate decreased kidney function but does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to hyperkalemia. Peripheral neuropathy (Choice C) and uremic fetor (Choice D) are common manifestations of CKD but are not as urgent as addressing a potentially fatal electrolyte imbalance like hyperkalemia.
5. A client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count asks, 'Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys.
- B. Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density.
- C. Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
- D. Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia in renal insufficiency is often due to decreased erythropoietin production. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency as stated in choice B. Choice A is incorrect as erythropoietin does not increase blood flow to the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect because kidney insufficiency does not inhibit active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood; rather, it affects erythropoietin production and subsequent red blood cell formation.
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