Nursing Elites

1. A client has an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client’s dietary habits.
• B. Inquire about the client's use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
• C. Hold the client’s metformin (Glucophage).
• D. Contact the health care provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio can indicate various conditions such as dehydration, urinary obstruction, catabolism, or a high-protein diet. The initial action the nurse should take is to assess the client’s dietary habits to determine if the elevated ratio is related to diet. Inquiring about the use of NSAIDs is important as they can impact kidney function, but dietary causes should be ruled out first. Holding metformin or contacting the health care provider without assessing the dietary habits would be premature actions as they may not address the underlying cause of the elevated BUN/creatinine ratio.

2. Which clients are at risk for kidney problems? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Clients taking synthetic creatine supplements
• B. Clients taking metformin for diabetes mellitus
• C. Clients taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for chronic back pain
• D. Clients taking prenatal vitamins and using albuterol nebulizers

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients who take synthetic creatine supplements, metformin, and high-dose or long-term NSAIDs are at risk for kidney dysfunction. Synthetic creatine supplements can cause kidney damage, metformin may rarely cause lactic acidosis leading to renal impairment, and high-dose NSAIDs can lead to acute kidney injury. Prenatal vitamins and albuterol nebulizers are not known to significantly impact kidney function, thus do not pose a risk for kidney problems.

3. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

• A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
• B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
• C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
• D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.

4. The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1000 ml of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. What condition is the client at risk for developing?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions, which contain stomach acid, can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Excessive loss of acid results in an increase in the blood pH, leading to alkalosis. Hyperkalemia (B) is an elevated potassium level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Metabolic acidosis (C) is an acid-base imbalance characterized by low pH and bicarbonate levels, which is the opposite of what would occur with the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (D) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with the scenario described in the question.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin (Amoxil) to a patient and learns that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking penicillin. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Administer the amoxicillin and have epinephrine available.
• B. Ask the provider to order an antihistamine.
• C. Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic.
• D. Request an order for a beta-lactamase-resistant drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient has a history of rash from penicillin, it indicates a potential allergic reaction to penicillin and other related drugs, such as amoxicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering penicillins to such patients unless there is no alternative. The nurse's best action in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic from a different class. This approach helps prevent potential severe allergic reactions. While epinephrine and antihistamines are used to manage allergic reactions, administering amoxicillin despite the known allergy is not advisable and could lead to serious consequences. Requesting a beta-lactamase-resistant drug does not address the issue of potential allergic reactions in this scenario.

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