Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN). Findings include moderate edema and oliguria. Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are elevated. What dietary modifications are most appropriate?

• A. Decreased carbohydrates and fat
• B. Decreased sodium and potassium
• C. Increased potassium and protein
• D. Increased sodium and fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased sodium and potassium.' In acute glomerulonephritis, managing edema and oliguria is crucial. Reducing sodium and potassium intake helps achieve this by decreasing fluid retention and workload on the kidneys. Choice A, 'Decreased carbohydrates and fat,' is not directly related to managing AGN. Choice C, 'Increased potassium and protein,' is incorrect as increasing potassium can be harmful in kidney conditions. Choice D, 'Increased sodium and fluids,' is also incorrect as it can exacerbate edema and hypertension in AGN.

2. What nursing assessment of a paralyzed client would indicate the probable presence of a fecal impaction?

• A. Presence of blood in stools
• B. Oozing liquid stool
• C. Continuous rumbling flatulence
• D. Absence of bowel movements

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Oozing liquid stool.' In a paralyzed client, oozing liquid stool is a common sign of fecal impaction. This occurrence requires prompt intervention to prevent complications. Choice A, 'Presence of blood in stools,' is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than fecal impaction. Choice C, 'Continuous rumbling flatulence,' is associated with gas movement in the intestines and not specifically linked to fecal impaction. Choice D, 'Absence of bowel movements,' could be a sign of constipation but does not directly point towards fecal impaction.

3. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Phosphate
• D. Albumin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.

4. A client with a head injury is being monitored for increased intracranial pressure. Which of these findings should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. A heart rate of 72 beats per minute
• B. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
• C. Pupils equal and reactive to light
• D. Client reports headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pupils that are equal and reactive to light are a crucial neurological assessment finding. Changes in pupil size and reactivity can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and are not indicative of increased intracranial pressure. A heart rate of 72 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, and a client reporting a headache are common findings and may not necessitate immediate intervention in this context.

5. The client is receiving discharge teaching for heart failure. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself daily and report any significant weight gain to my healthcare provider.
• B. I will limit my sodium intake to help manage my heart failure.
• C. I will take my medications as prescribed by my healthcare provider.
• D. I will stop taking my medications if I feel better.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because stopping medications when feeling better can be harmful in heart failure. It is essential to complete the full course of medication as prescribed by the healthcare provider to effectively manage heart failure. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate good understanding and compliance with heart failure management strategies, such as monitoring weight, restricting sodium intake, and adhering to prescribed medications, respectively.

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