a client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of 65 meql which of these assessments is the most critical for the nurse to perform
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet

1. In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.

2. A nurse is providing care to a 63-year-old client with pneumonia. Which intervention promotes the client's comfort?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping conversations short is the most appropriate intervention to promote comfort for a client with pneumonia. Pneumonia can be physically exhausting, and limiting the length of conversations helps conserve the client's energy. Encouraging visits from family and friends (Choice B) may be emotionally supportive but might not directly promote comfort in the context of conserving energy during recovery. Increasing oral fluid intake (Choice A) is important for hydration but may not directly address the client's comfort. Monitoring vital signs frequently (Choice D) is essential for assessing the client's condition but does not directly promote comfort.

3. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert, but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action. This position can help stimulate voiding due to gravity and normal positioning. Having the client drink water (Choice A) may help, but assisting him to stand is more effective. Crede maneuver (Choice B) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of bladder trauma. Waiting for 2 hours (Choice D) without taking any action is not proactive in addressing the client's inability to void.

4. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

5. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of these instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.' Before a colonoscopy, it is essential to cleanse the colon thoroughly by drinking a bowel preparation solution. This helps to ensure that the colon is clear for the procedure, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding eating or drinking after midnight, having a light breakfast, and avoiding medications are not specific instructions related to the colonoscopy preparation process.

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