Nursing Elites

1. In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?

• A. Neurological status
• B. Cardiac status
• C. Respiratory status
• D. Gastrointestinal status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.

2. When a client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer, which of the following should take priority in planning care?

• A. Esophagitis
• B. Leukopenia
• C. Fatigue
• D. Skin irritation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukopenia should take priority in planning care for a client receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for bronchial cancer because it is a serious side effect that increases the risk of infection. Monitoring leukopenia is crucial to prevent complications. Esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but leukopenia poses a higher risk of life-threatening infections, requiring immediate attention.

3. When introducing solid foods to an infant, what food should be recommended to be introduced first?

• A. Strained fruits
• B. Pureed meats
• C. Cooked egg whites
• D. Iron-fortified cereal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When introducing solid foods to infants, iron-fortified cereal is usually recommended as the first food due to its high nutritional value and the importance of iron for the baby's development. Strained fruits (choice A) are often introduced later due to their higher sugar content. Pureed meats (choice B) and cooked egg whites (choice C) are usually introduced after iron-fortified cereal to provide additional sources of protein and other nutrients.

4. A client is being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide (Lasix). Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased appetite
• C. Weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A rapid weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours suggests significant fluid loss, which is concerning in clients on diuretics like furosemide. Increased urine output (choice A) is an expected effect of diuretic therapy. Decreased appetite (choice B) is a common side effect but not as concerning as rapid weight loss. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg (choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most concerning finding in a client being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide.

5. The client is preparing for a myelogram. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a contraindication for this test?

• A. I can't lie in one position for more than thirty minutes.
• B. I am allergic to shrimp.
• C. I suffer from claustrophobia.
• D. I developed a severe headache after a spinal tap.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An allergy to shrimp is a contraindication for a myelogram because the contrast dye used in the procedure contains iodine, which can trigger allergic reactions in individuals allergic to shellfish. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for a myelogram. Inability to lie still for an extended period, claustrophobia, or a previous headache after a spinal tap are concerns that can be managed during the procedure but do not necessarily prevent the test from being performed.

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