a client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of 65 meql which of these assessments is the most critical for the nurse to perform
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet

1. In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.

2. A client is receiving intravenous antibiotics for the treatment of a severe infection. Which of these assessments is a priority for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving intravenous antibiotics, checking the IV site for signs of phlebitis is a priority assessment for the nurse. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the vein, which can lead to serious complications such as infection and thrombosis. Monitoring the IV site helps prevent these complications and ensures the safe delivery of antibiotics. While monitoring the client's temperature, pain level, and respiratory status are important assessments, they are not the priority in this scenario where IV antibiotic administration requires close monitoring for complications like phlebitis.

3. The nurse is about to assess a 6-month-old child with nonorganic failure-to-thrive (NOFTT). Upon entering the room, the nurse would expect the baby to be

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive often appears pale, thin, and uninterested in their surroundings. Choice A is incorrect as 'irritable and colicky with no attempts to pull to standing' is more indicative of other conditions like colic. Choice B is incorrect as a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive is unlikely to be alert, laughing, and playing, as they would typically present with signs of failure to thrive. Choice C is incorrect as dusky skin color and poor skin turgor are not typical findings in a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive.

4. A client is being discharged with a prescription for chlorpromazine (Thorazine). Before leaving for home, which of these findings should the nurse teach the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Sore throat and fever." These symptoms can indicate a serious side effect of chlorpromazine and should be reported immediately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with adverse effects of chlorpromazine. Changes in libido and breast enlargement are not commonly linked to this medication. Abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea are more likely to be gastrointestinal side effects. Dyspnea and nasal congestion are not commonly reported adverse effects of chlorpromazine.

5. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

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