a client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of 65 meql which of these assessments is the most critical for the nurse to perform
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet

1. In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.

2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has Crohn's Disease and is experiencing frequent cramping and diarrhea. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Increasing caloric intake by eating foods high in protein can help Crohn's Disease patients maintain their weight and manage symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because fresh fruits and vegetables may exacerbate symptoms due to their high fiber content. Choice C is incorrect as high-fat foods can be difficult to digest and may worsen symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because whole milk can be problematic for individuals with Crohn's Disease due to its high fat content.

3. The health care provider order reads 'aspirate nasogastric feeding (NG) tube every 4 hours and check pH of aspirate.' The pH of the aspirate is 10. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pH of 10 indicates improper placement of the NG tube, requiring notification of the provider and holding the feeding. Choice B is incorrect because administering the tube feeding could lead to complications due to the improper placement. Choice C is incorrect as irrigating the tube with diet cola soda is not a standard practice for addressing this issue. Choice D is incorrect as applying intermittent suction does not address the problem of improper placement indicated by the high pH level.

4. When a client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer, which of the following should take priority in planning care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukopenia should take priority in planning care for a client receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for bronchial cancer because it is a serious side effect that increases the risk of infection. Monitoring leukopenia is crucial to prevent complications. Esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but leukopenia poses a higher risk of life-threatening infections, requiring immediate attention.

5. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

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