Nursing Elites

1. A 14-year-old with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of vaso-occlusive crisis. Which statement by the client would be most indicative of the etiology of this crisis?

• A. I knew this would happen. I've been eating too much red meat lately.
• B. I really enjoyed my fishing trip yesterday. I caught 2 fish.
• C. I have really been working hard practicing with the debate team at school.
• D. I went to the healthcare provider last week for a cold, and I have gotten worse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a recent illness, such as a cold, can trigger a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease. This crisis is often precipitated by infections or other illnesses that cause a systemic inflammatory response, leading to vaso-occlusion. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the etiology of a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, making them incorrect.

2. A client wants to increase her daily intake of omega-3 fatty acids. Which of the following foods should the nurse suggest the client increase?

• A. Blueberries
• B. Soybean oil
• C. Citrus fruits
• D. Green tea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Soybean oil. Soybean oil is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. Blueberries (choice A), citrus fruits (choice C), and green tea (choice D) are not significant sources of omega-3 fatty acids. Blueberries are rich in antioxidants, citrus fruits provide vitamin C, and green tea contains polyphenols, but they do not offer a substantial amount of omega-3 fatty acids compared to soybean oil.

3. A client who is pregnant and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being taught about nutrition at home by a nurse. Which of the following statements indicate that the client understands the teachings?

• A. I will drink water with my meals.
• B. I will eat every 6 hours throughout the day.
• C. I will eat crackers before I get out of bed in the morning.
• D. I will limit my protein intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help manage nausea associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice A is incorrect because drinking water with meals may exacerbate nausea. Choice B is incorrect as eating every 6 hours may not be frequent enough to combat nausea and vomiting. Choice D is incorrect because protein intake should not be limited during pregnancy, especially in cases of hyperemesis gravidarum.

4. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

• A. Diminished bowel sounds
• B. Loss of appetite
• C. A cold, pale lower leg
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is the most concerning finding as it indicates poor blood flow, potentially suggesting a serious circulatory problem that requires immediate attention. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea may be relevant but are not as indicative of a critical circulatory issue as a cold, pale lower leg.

5. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?

• A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
• B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
• C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
• D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.

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