HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement for a male client with schizophrenia who is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit?
- A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
- B. Isolate the client from other clients.
- C. Administer a PRN sedative.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Echolalia, the constant repetition of what others are saying, can be disruptive to the therapeutic environment. The most appropriate intervention is to escort the client to his room. This action provides the client with a private space where he can engage in the behavior without disturbing other clients. Avoiding acknowledgment of the behavior (Choice A) may not address the issue and could lead to increased annoyance among other clients. Isolating the client (Choice B) may have negative psychological effects and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for safety concerns. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be considered only as a last resort and if other de-escalation techniques have been unsuccessful.
2. A client with an eating disorder tells the RN, 'I’ve been eating only 400 calories per day and have been taking diuretics to lose weight.' What is the RN’s best response?
- A. “Your diet is very harmful and needs to be changed immediately.”
- B. “It’s important to monitor your calorie intake carefully.”
- C. “Have you noticed any physical effects from this low-calorie diet?”
- D. “The diuretics could be causing your body to lose essential nutrients.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D. By addressing the potential harm of diuretics and the low-calorie diet, the nurse effectively addresses both aspects of the client's disordered eating behavior. Choice A is too direct and does not provide information on the specific issue of diuretics. Choice B focuses solely on monitoring calorie intake without addressing the use of diuretics. Choice C inquires about physical effects but does not address the overall risks associated with diuretics and low-calorie intake.
3. A female client with a history of major depressive disorder is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. Which statement by the client indicates a potential risk for suicide?
- A. “I’ve been feeling more tired than usual.”
- B. “I’ve been thinking about how much better everyone would be without me.”
- C. “I’ve been having trouble sleeping lately.”
- D. “I feel like I can’t handle everything.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client’s statement about thinking that everyone would be better off without her indicates suicidal ideation. This statement is a significant warning sign for suicide risk and requires immediate intervention. Choices A, C, and D reflect common symptoms of depression but do not directly indicate suicidal thoughts or intentions. Feeling tired, having trouble sleeping, and feeling overwhelmed are typical symptoms of major depressive disorder but do not necessarily suggest an imminent risk of suicide like the statement in option B does.
4. A client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt is being discharged from the hospital. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further follow-up?
- A. “I will take my medication as prescribed.”
- B. “I have a plan to attend weekly therapy sessions.”
- C. “I feel that I am completely recovered now.”
- D. “I will avoid people who make me feel worse.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt states, “I feel that I am completely recovered now,” it indicates a need for further follow-up. This statement suggests a potential lack of insight into the ongoing nature of depression and may lead to discontinuation of necessary treatment and support. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate positive and proactive attitudes towards managing depression and suicidal ideation, indicating a willingness to engage in treatment, therapy, and self-care practices.
5. A male client with schizophrenia tells the RN that he is being watched and that the television is speaking directly to him. Which response by the RN is appropriate?
- A. “The television cannot speak to you.”
- B. “That sounds very frightening for you.”
- C. “You should ignore the television.”
- D. “Why do you think the television is talking to you?”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Option B is the correct response because it acknowledges the client's feelings and demonstrates empathy. By stating that the situation sounds frightening, the RN validates the client's experience without denying or reinforcing the delusion. This approach helps build rapport and trust with the client, which is essential in therapeutic communication. Options A and C are dismissive and may invalidate the client's experience, potentially worsening the trust relationship. Option D is confrontational and may make the client defensive, hindering effective communication and rapport-building.
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