a male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit that intervention is best for the
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement for a male client with schizophrenia who is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Echolalia, the constant repetition of what others are saying, can be disruptive to the therapeutic environment. The most appropriate intervention is to escort the client to his room. This action provides the client with a private space where he can engage in the behavior without disturbing other clients. Avoiding acknowledgment of the behavior (Choice A) may not address the issue and could lead to increased annoyance among other clients. Isolating the client (Choice B) may have negative psychological effects and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for safety concerns. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be considered only as a last resort and if other de-escalation techniques have been unsuccessful.

2. After receiving treatment for anorexia, a student asks the school nurse for permission to work in the school cafeteria as part of the school’s work-study program. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with anorexia are often fixated on food and exercise, which can exacerbate their condition. By recommending assignment to the receptionist's office, the nurse provides an environment that minimizes exposure to food-related triggers. Working in the cafeteria may intensify the student's preoccupation with food, making it an unsuitable choice. Referring the student to a psychiatrist without exploring less triggering work options first may not be necessary. Determining the parents' opinion is important, but in this context, the focus should be on selecting a work environment that supports the student's recovery.

3. A client is admitted for bipolar disorder and alcohol withdrawal, depressive phase. Based on which assessment finding will the RN withhold the clonidine (Catapres) prescription?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A. Clonidine, such as Catapres, is a medication that can lower blood pressure. Therefore, if a client has low blood pressure readings, like 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg, the registered nurse should withhold the clonidine prescription to prevent further lowering of blood pressure which could lead to adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are within normal ranges and do not present a contraindication for the administration of clonidine in this context.

4. Which client statement suggests that the client is using a defense mechanism of projection to deal with anxiety related to admission to a psychiatric unit?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client is projecting their own aggressive tendencies onto the psychiatric aide by suggesting hitting the wall instead of the aide. This statement reflects projection, a defense mechanism where one attributes their unacceptable feelings or impulses to others. Choice B reflects externalization rather than projection, Choice C reflects rationalization, and Choice D reflects denial.

5. A young adult female visits the mental health clinic complaining of diarrhea, headache, and muscle aches. She is afebrile, denies chills, and all laboratory findings are within normal limits. During the physical assessment, the client tells the RN that her sister thinks she is neurotic and calls her a hypochondriac. Which response is best for the RN to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acknowledging the impact of the sister's comments on the client helps validate the client's feelings and supports therapeutic dialogue.

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