Nursing Elites

1. A client is being educated by a healthcare professional about initiating a prescribed abstinence therapy using Disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?

• A. Admit to others that they are a substance abuser.
• B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours before taking the first dose.
• C. Attend monthly Alcoholics Anonymous meetings.
• D. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: B: Before starting Disulfiram therapy, it is crucial for clients to be alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours to prevent adverse reactions. A: Admitting substance abuse is important, but it is not directly linked to the initiation of Disulfiram therapy. C: Attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings is beneficial for support but not a specific requirement for starting Disulfiram. D: The focus of Disulfiram therapy is on alcohol abstinence, so abstaining from heroin or cocaine is not directly related to this medication.

2. A male client approaches the RN with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!” The RN recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial.
• B. Projection.
• C. Rationalization.
• D. Splitting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. Projection involves attributing one's own unacceptable feelings or thoughts to others, as seen in the client’s accusations of his roommate’s behavior. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own anger and potential for violence onto his roommate. Choice A, Denial, involves refusing to acknowledge some aspect of reality, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasons are given to justify behaviors that are actually based on unacceptable motives, which is not demonstrated by the client's behavior. Choice D, Splitting, is a defense mechanism where a person sees others as all good or all bad, not applicable in this case as the client is not portraying extreme views of his roommate.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being discharged home after an extended stay in a psychiatric hospital. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching about medication management is needed?

• A. “I will take my medication only when I feel like it.”
• B. “I need to follow up with my psychiatrist regularly.”
• C. “I will notify my healthcare provider if I experience side effects.”
• D. “I should avoid alcohol while on my medication.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This statement indicates a lack of understanding about medication management for schizophrenia. Medications for schizophrenia should be taken consistently as prescribed for optimal effectiveness, regardless of how the client feels. Choice B is a correct statement as regular follow-up with a psychiatrist is important for monitoring progress and adjusting treatment. Choice C demonstrates good awareness of potential side effects and the need for communication with healthcare providers. Choice D reflects appropriate knowledge as alcohol can interact with medications and may reduce their effectiveness.

4. Narcan was administered to an adult client following a suicide attempt with an overdose of hydrocodone bitartrate (Vicodin). Within 15 minutes, the client is alert and oriented. In planning nursing care, which intervention has the highest priority at this time?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Obtain the client’s serum Vicodin level.
• C. Observe the client for further narcotic effects.
• D. Determine the client’s reason for attempting suicide.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the client for further narcotic effects is the priority at this time. It is crucial to monitor the client closely to prevent a relapse of symptoms or potential complications from the overdose. Encouraging fluid intake is important for overall health but not the priority after an overdose. Obtaining serum Vicodin levels may be needed later but does not address the immediate need to monitor for ongoing effects. Determining the reason for the suicide attempt is vital for psychological assessment but should come after ensuring the client's physical stability.

5. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

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