Nursing Elites

1. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have health insurance through her place of employment. Which agency should the client be referred to by the employee health nurse for health insurance needs?

• A. Woman, Infants, and Children program
• B. Medicaid
• C. Medicare
• D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act provision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Medicare. Title XVII of the Social Security Act of 1965 created the Medicare Program to provide medical insurance for individuals who are 65 years or older, disabled, or have permanent kidney failure. Medicare is the appropriate agency to refer a 66-year-old woman who is retiring and losing her employment-based health insurance. Choice A, the Woman, Infants, and Children program, is not suitable for this scenario as it provides assistance for low-income pregnant women, breastfeeding women, and young children. Choice B, Medicaid, is a program that helps individuals with low income and resources cover medical costs, which may not be applicable to this woman's situation. Choice D, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act provision, known as COBRA, allows employees to continue their group health insurance coverage after leaving their job but may not be the best option for this woman in this case.

2. In a client with liver cirrhosis admitted with ascites and jaundice, which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
• B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis because it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Serum albumin, though low, is expected in cirrhosis and contributes to ascites. Bilirubin elevation is common in liver disease but may not be the most concerning in this case. Prothrombin time is typically prolonged in liver disease but may not be as acute as an elevated ammonia level suggesting hepatic encephalopathy.

3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are a critical finding in hyperkalemia as they indicate potential life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent cardiac complications such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Bradycardia, decreased deep tendon reflexes, and muscle weakness are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and do not pose the same level of immediate risk to the client's life.

4. A client who had a gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) evacuated 2 days ago is being monitored for choriocarcinoma. She lives in a rural area, and her husband takes the family car to work daily, leaving her without transportation during the day. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Teach the client about the use of a home pregnancy test.
• B. Schedule a weekly home visit to draw hCG values.
• C. Make a 5-week follow-up appointment with the healthcare provider.
• D. Begin chemotherapy administration during the first home visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling weekly home visits to monitor hCG levels is critical for early detection of choriocarcinoma, a potential complication of GTD. Choice A is incorrect because a home pregnancy test is not the appropriate method to monitor for choriocarcinoma. Choice C is less frequent than necessary for close monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy administration should be based on confirmed diagnosis and treatment plan, not initiated during the first home visit.

5. A client with a traumatic brain injury becomes progressively less responsive to stimuli. The client has a 'Do Not Resuscitate' prescription, and the nurse observes that the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has stopped turning the client from side to side as previously scheduled. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Advise the UAP to resume positioning the client on schedule
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Document the UAP's actions
• D. Discuss the situation with the client’s family

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuing to turn the client is crucial to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers, even if the client is less responsive. Advising the UAP to resume positioning the client on schedule is the most appropriate action in this situation. This action ensures that the client's care needs are met and helps prevent potential complications. Notifying the healthcare provider or documenting the UAP's actions may delay the necessary care for the client. Discussing the situation with the client's family is important but addressing the immediate care need of turning the client takes priority.

Similar Questions