a 66 year old woman is retiring and will no longer have health insurance through her place of employment which agency should the client be referred to
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have health insurance through her place of employment. Which agency should the client be referred to by the employee health nurse for health insurance needs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Medicare. Title XVII of the Social Security Act of 1965 created the Medicare Program to provide medical insurance for individuals who are 65 years or older, disabled, or have permanent kidney failure. Medicare is the appropriate agency to refer a 66-year-old woman who is retiring and losing her employment-based health insurance. Choice A, the Woman, Infants, and Children program, is not suitable for this scenario as it provides assistance for low-income pregnant women, breastfeeding women, and young children. Choice B, Medicaid, is a program that helps individuals with low income and resources cover medical costs, which may not be applicable to this woman's situation. Choice D, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act provision, known as COBRA, allows employees to continue their group health insurance coverage after leaving their job but may not be the best option for this woman in this case.

2. In a client with cirrhosis admitted with jaundice and ascites, which laboratory value is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with cirrhosis as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated ammonia levels are associated with impaired liver function and can lead to mental status changes. Serum bilirubin (Choice A) is elevated in cirrhosis but not as concerning for acute intervention as high ammonia levels. Serum albumin (Choice B) and serum sodium (Choice D) levels are important in cirrhotic patients but are not as directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy as ammonia levels.

3. The nurse is assessing a primigravida at 39-weeks gestation during a weekly prenatal visit. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 200 beats per minute is significantly elevated and requires immediate medical attention. This finding could indicate fetal distress, tachycardia, or other serious issues that need prompt evaluation. Mild ankle edema, complaints of back pain, and decreased fetal movements are common in pregnancy but are not as urgent or concerning as a high fetal heart rate.

4. A female client is admitted with end-stage pulmonary disease, is alert, oriented, and complaining of shortness of breath. The client tells the nurse that she wants 'no heroic measures' taken if she stops breathing, and she asks the nurse to document this in her medical record. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to ask the client to discuss 'do not resuscitate' (DNR) wishes with her healthcare provider. This is important to ensure that the client makes informed decisions regarding her care. While documenting the client's wishes in her medical record is essential, it is crucial that the client discusses these wishes with the healthcare provider to understand the implications and have the DNR order legally documented. Asking the client to sign an advance directive is premature without a detailed discussion with the healthcare provider. Placing a 'Do Not Resuscitate' (DNR) order in the client's chart should only be done after the client has discussed and agreed upon this decision with the healthcare provider.

5. A client with rapid respirations and audible rhonchi is admitted to the intensive care unit because of a pulmonary embolism (PE). Low-flow oxygen by nasal cannula and weight-based heparin protocol are initiated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Evaluating blood clotting factors daily is crucial when a client is on heparin therapy to monitor for potential complications such as bleeding or clotting issues. This monitoring helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range and reduces the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Encouraging incentive spirometry use is beneficial for preventing atelectasis and improving lung function, but in this scenario, monitoring blood clotting factors takes precedence. Administering pain medication as needed is important for the client's comfort but is not the priority in managing a pulmonary embolism. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important due to heparin therapy, but evaluating blood clotting factors provides more specific information on the client's response to treatment.

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