Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Headache
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.

2. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products while in the operating room. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, he is being mechanically ventilated, and his oxygen saturation is 87%. His laboratory values include hemoglobin 7.0 g/dL, platelets 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells 1,500/mm³. Based on these assessment findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
• B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
• C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
• D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation at 90%.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of severe anemia and hypovolemic shock, indicated by low hemoglobin levels and hypotension. The first priority is to address the low hemoglobin by transfusing packed red blood cells to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and perfusion to vital organs. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures is important for identifying potential infections, infusing normal saline can help with volume expansion but does not address the primary issue of severe anemia. Titrating oxygen to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90% is crucial but should follow the administration of packed red blood cells to optimize oxygen delivery.

3. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
• C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial priority in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in reducing myocardial damage. While administering aspirin and nitroglycerin are essential interventions in the treatment of myocardial infarction, oxygen therapy takes precedence because it addresses the immediate need for oxygen supply to the heart muscle. Obtaining an ECG is important but can be done after ensuring adequate oxygenation.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Fever of 100.4°F
• B. Positive Chvostek's sign
• C. Increased joint pain
• D. Swelling in the joints

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, which requires immediate intervention as it can lead to life-threatening complications. Fever, increased joint pain, and swelling in the joints are common symptoms in clients with rheumatoid arthritis but do not require immediate intervention like addressing hypocalcemia.

5. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
• B. Administer a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
• C. Increase fluid intake to soften stool
• D. Perform a digital rectal examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.

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