Nursing Elites

1. A male client with heart failure presents with shortness of breath, audible wheezing, and pink frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Consult with the charge nurse regarding morphine prescription.
• B. Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed.
• C. Withhold morphine until dyspnea resolves.
• D. Review the need for the prescription with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed. In heart failure, morphine helps reduce anxiety, preload, and afterload on the heart, improving oxygenation. The client's symptoms indicate acute decompensated heart failure, and morphine should be administered promptly to relieve distress. Consulting the charge nurse (Choice A) or withholding morphine (Choice C) would delay necessary treatment. Reviewing the prescription with the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not needed in this acute situation.

2. A client is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, and the nurse is teaching dietary modifications. What should be limited in this client's diet?

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Fats
• C. Proteins
• D. Vitamins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, proteins should be limited in the diet. When the kidneys are not functioning well, the buildup of protein byproducts can put additional stress on them. Limiting protein intake can help reduce the burden on the kidneys. Carbohydrates and fats do not need to be restricted in the same way as proteins. Vitamins are essential nutrients that should not be limited in the diet unless specified by a healthcare provider for a specific reason.

3. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
• B. Place the client in a supine position.
• C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
• D. Review the client's recent medication history.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.

4. The nurse is providing education to a client who experiences recurrent levels of moderate anxiety in response to situations and perceived stress. In addition to information about prescribed medication and administration, which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Practice using muscle relaxation techniques
• B. Take medication only when anxiety is at its worst
• C. Avoid interactions that trigger stress
• D. Engage in exercise during anxious periods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Teaching relaxation techniques, such as muscle relaxation, helps the client manage anxiety more effectively. These techniques can be practiced regularly to reduce overall anxiety and can complement prescribed medications. Choice B is incorrect because medication should be taken as prescribed, not only when anxiety is at its worst. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding interactions that trigger stress may not always be feasible and does not teach the client coping mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect as engaging in exercise during anxious periods may not be the most effective strategy for managing moderate anxiety levels.

5. When a pediatric client is taking the beta-adrenergic blocking agent propranolol, what signs of overdose should the nurse instruct the parents to report?

• A. Seizures
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Irritability

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a pediatric client is taking propranolol, the nurse should instruct the parents to report signs of overdose, including bradycardia. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can lead to dangerously slow heart rate as a sign of overdose. While increased respiratory rate, seizures, and irritability may occur in some cases, bradycardia is the most critical symptom indicating an overdose of this medication.

Similar Questions