a client receiving iv heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools what is the nurses priority action a client receiving iv heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.

2. While caring for a client who was admitted with myocardial infarction (MI) 2 days ago, the nurse notes today's temperature is 101.1 degrees Fahrenheit (38.5 degrees Celsius). The appropriate nursing intervention is to

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer acetaminophen as ordered because a slight fever is normal after an MI. This intervention can help manage the fever unless other complications are present. Calling the health care provider immediately is not necessary for a slight fever post-MI. Sending blood, urine, and sputum for culture is not indicated solely based on a slight fever without other symptoms or signs of infection. Increasing fluid intake may be beneficial for various reasons but is not the priority in this situation where managing the fever with acetaminophen is appropriate.

3. A client with chronic liver disease is prescribed lactulose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum ammonia level. Lactulose is used to lower serum ammonia levels in clients with chronic liver disease, particularly in cases of hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of lactulose in managing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the action or evaluation of lactulose in chronic liver disease.

4. Which therapeutic communication statement might a psychiatric-mental health registered nurse use when a patient's nursing diagnosis is altered thought processes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because it acknowledges the patient's experience of hearing voices, showing empathy and exploring the content of the hallucinations. This type of therapeutic communication encourages the patient to express their thoughts and feelings without judgment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they either deny the patient's experience, dismiss the hallucinations as not real, or suggest eliminating them, which can be perceived as invalidating the patient's feelings and experiences.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving heparin therapy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hematuria is a sign of bleeding, which is a potential complication of heparin therapy. Immediate intervention is required to manage the bleeding and adjust the heparin dosage if necessary. Localized warmth, calf pain, and swelling in the affected leg are common findings in clients with DVT and receiving heparin therapy. While these symptoms should be monitored, hematuria indicates a more serious issue requiring immediate attention.

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