Nursing Elites

1. A male client with heart failure becomes short of breath, anxious, and has pink frothy sputum. What is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Consult the charge nurse about administering morphine.
• B. Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed.
• C. Withhold the morphine until the dyspnea resolves.
• D. Review the need for the morphine prescription with the provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed. In this situation, the client is experiencing symptoms of acute pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure. Morphine is indicated as it helps reduce anxiety and respiratory distress by decreasing preload and afterload. It dilates blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving oxygenation. The priority is to administer the morphine promptly to alleviate the client's distress and improve oxygenation. Consulting the charge nurse (A) or reviewing the need for the morphine prescription with the provider (D) would cause a delay in providing essential treatment. Withholding the morphine (C) would not be appropriate as it is indicated for this condition.

2. Which documentation indicates that activities to prevent postoperative venous stasis were performed correctly?

• A. Antiembolism stockings on, leg exercises performed hourly.
• B. Antiembolism stockings removed hourly during leg exercises.
• C. Leg exercises not performed due to antiembolism hose.
• D. Client demonstrates ability to move extremities well.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Antiembolism stockings on, leg exercises performed hourly.' This documentation indicates the correct performance of activities to prevent postoperative venous stasis, as both components are crucial for prevention. Choice B is incorrect because removing stockings hourly is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as leg exercises should be performed despite wearing antiembolism stockings. Choice D is incorrect as demonstrating the ability to move extremities well does not specifically address the prevention of venous stasis.

3. A client reports that the skin around the edges of a wound is red and swollen. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Reinforce the wound dressing
• C. Contact the healthcare provider
• D. Apply a warm compress to the wound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of infection. Redness and swelling around a wound are indicative of a potential infection. The priority intervention for the nurse is to closely monitor the wound for further signs of infection, such as increased drainage or fever. Reinforcing the wound dressing may be necessary, but it is not the priority when infection is suspected. Contacting the healthcare provider is important, but the nurse should first assess and monitor the wound to provide comprehensive information when contacting the provider. Applying a warm compress can potentially worsen the infection by promoting bacterial growth, so it is contraindicated in this situation.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which of the following interventions is a priority to maintain client safety?

• A. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours
• B. Check the tube placement before each feeding
• C. Secure the tube to the client's nose with tape
• D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the correct placement of a nasogastric tube before each feeding is essential to prevent aspiration and ensure that the tube is properly positioned in the stomach or intestine. This action is a priority to maintain client safety. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours is important for tube patency but is not the priority over verifying placement. Securing the tube with tape and keeping the head of the bed elevated are crucial but are considered secondary measures compared to confirming the correct tube placement.

5. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving an insulin infusion. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L.
• B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
• C. Urine output of 50 mL/hour.
• D. Absence of ketones in the urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absence of ketones in the urine. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) receiving an insulin infusion, the absence of ketones in the urine indicates that ketoacidosis is resolving. This is a crucial finding as it shows that the insulin therapy is effectively addressing the metabolic imbalance causing DKA. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within normal range but does not directly reflect the resolution of DKA; a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL, while improved, is still high and does not specifically indicate the resolution of ketoacidosis; urine output of 50 mL/hour is within normal limits but does not directly point to the resolution of DKA.

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