a male client with heart failure becomes short of breath anxious and has pink frothy sputum what is the first action the nurse should take
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. A male client with heart failure becomes short of breath, anxious, and has pink frothy sputum. What is the first action the nurse should take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed. In this situation, the client is experiencing symptoms of acute pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure. Morphine is indicated as it helps reduce anxiety and respiratory distress by decreasing preload and afterload. It dilates blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving oxygenation. The priority is to administer the morphine promptly to alleviate the client's distress and improve oxygenation. Consulting the charge nurse (A) or reviewing the need for the morphine prescription with the provider (D) would cause a delay in providing essential treatment. Withholding the morphine (C) would not be appropriate as it is indicated for this condition.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with an acute myocardial infarction. Which symptom requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe chest pain is the hallmark symptom of an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Chest pain in this context is often described as crushing, pressure, tightness, or heaviness. It can radiate to the arms, neck, jaw, back, or upper abdomen. Other symptoms like dizziness, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting may also occur in acute myocardial infarction, but chest pain is the most critical sign requiring prompt action as it signifies inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. Shortness of breath may indicate heart failure, while nausea and vomiting can be associated with the sympathetic response to myocardial infarction. Dizziness could result from decreased cardiac output but is not as specific to myocardial infarction as severe chest pain.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 320 mg/dL indicates the need for insulin to manage diabetic ketoacidosis.

4. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is dangerous and requires immediate treatment. Administering a potassium-binding medication will help lower potassium levels and prevent life-threatening complications.

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