A male client with heart failure becomes short of breath, anxious, and has pink frothy sputum. What is the first action the nurse should take?

A. Consult the charge nurse about administering morphine.

B. Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed.

C. Withhold the morphine until the dyspnea resolves.

D. Review the need for the morphine prescription with the provider.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed. In this situation, the client is experiencing symptoms of acute pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure. Morphine is indicated as it helps reduce anxiety and respiratory distress by decreasing preload and afterload. It dilates blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving oxygenation. The priority is to administer the morphine promptly to alleviate the client's distress and improve oxygenation. Consulting the charge nurse (A) or reviewing the need for the morphine prescription with the provider (D) would cause a delay in providing essential treatment. Withholding the morphine (C) would not be appropriate as it is indicated for this condition.

A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right AKA (above-the-knee amputation) for a severe traumatic injury. He is in the commons room and anxiously calls out to the nurse, stating that his 'right foot is aching.' The nurse offers reassurance and support. Which additional intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Teach the client distraction techniques
• B. Provide a soft blanket to ease discomfort
• C. Administer prescribed pain medication
• D. Encourage discussion of feelings about the loss of his limb

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's report of pain in a missing limb is consistent with phantom limb pain, which can be distressing. Encouraging the client to discuss his feelings helps address the emotional and psychological aspects of the amputation and supports his overall recovery. Teaching distraction techniques (choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying emotional distress. Providing a soft blanket (choice B) is not the priority when dealing with phantom limb pain. Administering pain medication (choice C) may not effectively manage phantom limb pain as it is more related to central nervous system changes rather than tissue damage.

A client is receiving IV antibiotic therapy for sepsis. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. Urine output increases to 25 mL/hour
• B. Client reports feeling less fatigued
• C. Heart rate decreases from 120 to 110 beats per minute
• D. White blood cell count decreases from 15,000 to 9,000/mm3

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment, making this the most objective indicator of improvement in a client with sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are subjective indicators and may not always directly correlate with the resolution of the underlying infection. While an increase in urine output, a client reporting feeling less fatigued, and a decrease in heart rate are positive signs, they are not as specific or directly related to the resolution of the infection as a decrease in white blood cell count.

A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
• D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

• A. Being NPO helps reduce the risk of nausea.
• B. I should not eat or drink anything to prevent complications during surgery.
• C. NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.
• D. NPO helps ensure the stomach is empty during surgery.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.