HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with chronic liver disease develops jaundice. What is the most important assessment the nurse should perform?
- A. Assess the client’s skin for lesions or sores.
- B. Monitor the client’s liver function tests.
- C. Assess for changes in mental status and behavior.
- D. Monitor the client’s urine output closely.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease developing jaundice, the most important assessment the nurse should perform is to monitor the client’s urine output closely. Jaundice can indicate worsening liver function, so monitoring urine output helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, which are critical in chronic liver disease. Assessing the client’s skin for lesions or sores (Choice A) may be relevant for dermatological conditions but is not the priority in this case. Monitoring liver function tests (Choice B) is important but may not provide immediate information on the client’s current status. Assessing for changes in mental status and behavior (Choice C) is important for detecting hepatic encephalopathy but does not directly address the immediate concern of fluid balance and kidney function in the presence of jaundice.
2. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. What assessment finding indicates the need for further intervention?
- A. The client reports feeling short of breath.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
- D. The client is unable to complete sentences without pausing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the inability to complete sentences without pausing indicates respiratory distress and the need for immediate intervention. This finding suggests an increased work of breathing and inadequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as choice D. Feeling short of breath (choice A) is expected in pneumonia but does not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 92% (choice B) is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute (choice C) is within the normal range and does not signify an urgent need for intervention.
3. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
- B. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- C. Assess the client's lung sounds.
- D. Reposition the client to relieve dyspnea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing worsening dyspnea, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. This helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Administering a diuretic (Choice B) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation comes first. While assessing lung sounds (Choice C) is important, it is not the immediate priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation.
4. A client with dysphagia is having difficulty swallowing medications. What is the nurse's best intervention?
- A. Crush the medications and mix them with applesauce.
- B. Encourage the client to drink water with each dose.
- C. Consult with the healthcare provider about switching to liquid medications.
- D. Offer the client soft foods to reduce difficulty swallowing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best intervention for a client with dysphagia experiencing difficulty swallowing medications is to consult with the healthcare provider about switching to liquid medications. Liquid medications are often easier to swallow and can reduce the risk of choking and aspiration in clients with dysphagia. Crushing medications can alter their effectiveness, encouraging the client to drink water may not be sufficient, and offering soft foods is not directly related to improving medication swallowing.
5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach.
- B. Report any signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Monitor for changes in blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any bleeding-related symptoms for evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach, is more relevant for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent vitamin K intake. Warfarin should be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for changes in blood pressure is not directly related to warfarin therapy; instead, the focus should be on monitoring for signs of bleeding.
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