Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.

2. Where should the healthcare provider consider starting a screening program for hypothyroidism?

• A. A business and professional women’s group.
• B. An African-American senior citizens' center.
• C. A daycare center in a Hispanic neighborhood.
• D. An after-school center for Native American teens.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An African-American senior citizens' center is the most appropriate location to start a screening program for hypothyroidism. Older adults are at an increased risk of hypothyroidism, and African-Americans are more likely to be underserved in healthcare. Therefore, targeting this group can help in early detection and management of hypothyroidism. The other options, such as a business and professional women’s group, a daycare center in a Hispanic neighborhood, and an after-school center for Native American teens, do not align as closely with the demographic at higher risk for hypothyroidism.

3. A client with a history of adrenal insufficiency is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. The client complains of nausea and joint pain, vital signs show a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138, and blood pressure of 80/60. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute adrenal crisis, the priority intervention is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus to address the hypotension (blood pressure of 80/60) and help stabilize the client's condition. Adequate fluid volume is crucial in managing adrenal insufficiency crisis. Options A, C, and D do not directly address the hypotension and fluid volume depletion that are critical in this situation. Analgesics, antipyretics, and cooling blankets may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on fluid resuscitation.

4. A client is being discharged following a cystectomy and urinary diversion. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?

• A. Avoid lifting heavy objects for six weeks.
• B. Report any signs of cloudy urine output.
• C. Drink 8 glasses of water a day.
• D. Monitor for signs of infection at the surgical site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a client following a cystectomy and urinary diversion is to report any signs of cloudy urine output. Cloudy urine may indicate infection, which is a serious concern in clients with a urinary diversion. Instructing the client to report any signs of infection immediately is crucial to prevent complications. Avoiding heavy lifting is important for postoperative recovery but not as critical as identifying a potential infection. Drinking an adequate amount of water is generally beneficial for health but not the most crucial instruction in this scenario. While monitoring for signs of infection at the surgical site is essential, cloudy urine is a more specific and immediate indicator of a potential problem in clients with urinary diversions.

5. A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 20 breaths per minute
• B. White blood cell count decreases to normal range
• C. Client reports increased energy levels
• D. Cough becomes productive with green sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.

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