Nursing Elites

1. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes Novolin 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin (Zithromax) PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of the Zithromax an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the Zithromax
• B. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the Zithromax two hours after eating
• C. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the Zithromax the next day
• D. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the Zithromax right after breakfast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the effectiveness of the antibiotic and manage blood glucose levels, the client should take the Zithromax two hours after eating. Option A is incorrect because obtaining a new breakfast tray is not necessary to administer the missed dose. Option C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic. Option D is incorrect because providing an antacid is not indicated in this situation.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). While INR is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, in the case of heparin therapy, the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the preferred test. Choice A, Prothrombin Time (PT), measures the activity of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the best choice for monitoring heparin therapy. Choice D, Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT), is similar to PTT and is used to monitor heparin therapy, but PTT is the more specific test. Therefore, monitoring PTT is crucial in determining the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy.

3. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client's statements?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram
• B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure
• C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after the menstrual period ends
• D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to perform breast self-examination (BSE) 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is important because breasts are least tender during this phase of the menstrual cycle, allowing for a more effective examination. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, the immediate concern is the timing of BSE. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE practice just needs a slight adjustment in timing, not an in-depth review. Choice D is incorrect as the client should perform BSE when her breasts are least tender for optimal detection of any abnormalities.

4. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the child in a mist tent
• B. Obtain a sputum culture
• C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
• D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.

5. The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older client who has difficulty swallowing and has a history of aspiration pneumonia. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a speech therapy consult
• B. Elevate the head of the bed
• C. Check the client's lung sounds
• D. Implement aspiration precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps prevent aspiration in clients with swallowing difficulties by reducing the risk of food or fluids entering the airway. While obtaining a speech therapy consult (Choice A) is important, the immediate priority is to ensure the client's safety by positioning them properly. Checking the client's lung sounds (Choice C) and implementing aspiration precautions (Choice D) are also essential steps but should follow the immediate intervention of elevating the head of the bed to prevent aspiration.

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