Nursing Elites

1. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
• B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.

2. A male client comes to the emergency center with an erection that will not resolve. The client reports that he is taking trazodone (Desyrel) for insomnia. Which information is most important for the nurse to ask this client?

• A. Have you taken any medication for erectile dysfunction?
• B. Are you experiencing any other sexual dysfunctions or problems?
• C. When was the last time you consumed alcohol?
• D. Do you have a history of angina or high blood pressure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most important question for the nurse to ask the client is whether he is experiencing any other sexual dysfunctions or problems. This inquiry is crucial as it can help in determining if the persistent erection is a side effect of trazodone. Asking about medication for erectile dysfunction (Choice A) may not provide relevant information in this case, as the focus is on the potential side effects of trazodone. Inquiring about the last time the client consumed alcohol (Choice C) is not directly related to the situation at hand. Questioning about a history of angina or high blood pressure (Choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not as directly relevant to the immediate concern of the persistent erection potentially caused by trazodone.

3. A male adult is admitted because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. After transfer to the mental health unit, the client is told he has liver damage. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan?

• A. Eat a high-carbohydrate, low-fat, low-protein diet.
• B. Do not take any over-the-counter medication.
• C. Call the crisis hotline if feeling lonely.
• D. Avoid exposure to large crowds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan is to not take any over-the-counter medication. This is crucial because over-the-counter medications can potentially interact with the damaged liver and worsen the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical in the context of liver damage from an acetaminophen overdose. While diet is important for overall health, specifically for liver damage, avoiding over-the-counter medications takes precedence. Calling the crisis hotline for loneliness and avoiding exposure to large crowds are important considerations but are not directly related to the client's liver damage from the acetaminophen overdose.

4. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

5. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while vigorously doing push-ups and then running the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to verbally attack other clients. What intervention is most appropriate for the RN to use to manage the client’s behavior?

• A. Assist the client to a safe area to avoid injury.
• B. Establish clear and firm limits with the client.
• C. Offer medication to help calm the client down.
• D. Speak with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to a safe area is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This action helps prevent injury to the client and others while allowing for de-escalation in a controlled environment. While establishing clear and firm limits (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations, the immediate priority here is safety. Offering medication (Choice C) should not be the first response unless the situation escalates further and poses a risk to the client or others. Speaking with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner (Choice D) may not be effective when the client is in an agitated state and engaging in risky behavior.

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