HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client after a total hip replacement. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
- B. I will use a raised toilet seat to prevent bending too far.
- C. I should keep my legs together to prevent dislocation.
- D. I will use a walker when moving around initially.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients who have had a hip replacement should not keep their legs together to prevent dislocation. This position increases the risk of hip dislocation. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements. Avoiding crossing legs, using a raised toilet seat to prevent excessive bending, and using a walker when moving around initially are all appropriate measures to ensure proper recovery and prevent complications after a total hip replacement.
2. The caregiver learns the use of a gait belt from the nurse for a woman with right-sided weakness. The caregiver demonstrates the skill. Which observation indicates that the caregiver has learned how to perform this procedure correctly?
- A. Standing on the woman's strong side, the caregiver is ready to hold the gait belt if any evidence of weakness is observed.
- B. Standing on the woman's weak side, the caregiver provides security by holding the gait belt from the back.
- C. Standing behind the woman, the caregiver provides balance by holding both sides of the gait belt.
- D. Standing slightly in front and to the right of the woman, the caregiver guides her forward by gently pulling on the gait belt.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Standing on the weak side of the client and holding the gait belt from the back provides better security and support during ambulation, reducing the risk of falls. This positioning allows the caregiver to offer stability and assistance without interfering with the client's movement, ensuring safe ambulation for the client with right-sided weakness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal support and security needed for a client with right-sided weakness. Standing on the weak side and holding the gait belt from the back is the most effective way to assist the client while minimizing the risk of falls.
3. A client is scheduled for a spiral CT scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client's history requires follow-up by the nurse?
- A. Is allergic to shellfish
- B. Has a history of smoking
- C. Takes metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus
- D. Has hypertension controlled with medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An allergy to shellfish often indicates an allergy to iodine, which is used in contrast dyes for CT scans. This poses a significant risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure. The nurse must ensure appropriate precautions or alternative imaging are considered. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated for a CT scan with contrast. Smoking history, metformin use, and controlled hypertension do not typically impact the safety or feasibility of the procedure.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with Diabetes Insipidus. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Excessive thirst
- C. Elevated heart rate
- D. Poor skin turgor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypernatremia. In a client with Diabetes Insipidus, hypernatremia, an elevated sodium level in the blood, can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, seizures, or coma. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent these serious complications. Excessive thirst (choice B) is a common symptom of Diabetes Insipidus but does not require immediate intervention. Elevated heart rate (choice C) and poor skin turgor (choice D) are important assessments but are not as critical as hypernatremia in this context.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. Serum sodium
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is undergoing erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, which may lead to an increase in potassium levels, predisposing the client to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels helps in early detection of hyperkalemia and appropriate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hemoglobin, serum sodium, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor in various clinical conditions, they are not specifically associated with erythropoietin therapy in chronic kidney disease.