HESI RN TEST BANK

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

A male client reports numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. What laboratory value should the nurse review?

    A. Capillary glucose.

    B. Serum calcium.

    C. Urine specific gravity.

    D. White blood cell count.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia, a condition characterized by low calcium levels in the blood. Reviewing the client's serum calcium levels is crucial in this situation to assess for hypocalcemia. Choice A, Capillary glucose, is incorrect because symptoms described are not typically associated with glucose abnormalities. Choice C, Urine specific gravity, and Choice D, White blood cell count, are unrelated to the symptoms presented and are not indicative of the client's condition.

A 4-year-old child falls off a tricycle and is admitted for observation. How can the nurse best facilitate the child's cooperation during the assessment?

  • A. Ask the parent to hold the child during the assessment.
  • B. Allow the child to play with a syringe without a needle.
  • C. Ask the child to blow out the penlight as if to simulate success.
  • D. Explain the function of each organ during the assessment.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Engaging the child in blowing out the penlight simulates play and can reduce fear, helping with cooperation during the assessment. Choice A is not recommended as it may increase anxiety by separating the child from the parent. Choice B is not appropriate as it involves playing with a syringe, which may not be safe or suitable. Choice D is not ideal for a 4-year-old child as understanding organ functions may be beyond their developmental level.

Following a lumbar puncture, a client complains of worsening headache when sitting up. What complication is the client likely experiencing?

  • A. A migraine headache
  • B. An infection from the puncture site
  • C. Low blood sugar
  • D. Spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache)

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client is likely experiencing spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache), a common complication of a lumbar puncture. This leakage results in a reduction of cerebrospinal fluid volume around the brain and spinal cord, leading to a headache that worsens when in an upright position due to reduced buoyancy. A migraine headache (Choice A) is not typically associated with a lumbar puncture. Infection from the puncture site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of inflammation, such as redness, swelling, and warmth, rather than worsening headache. Low blood sugar (Choice C) is not a common complication of lumbar puncture and would not typically manifest as a worsening headache when sitting up.

A client with a fractured femur is placed in skeletal traction. What action should the nurse prioritize?

  • A. Ensure that the weights are freely hanging.
  • B. Place pillows under the client's knees.
  • C. Adjust the weights to alleviate discomfort.
  • D. Ensure that the traction ropes are free of knots.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should prioritize when a client is placed in skeletal traction for a fractured femur is to ensure that the weights are freely hanging. This is crucial to maintain proper alignment of the bone and prevent complications. Placing pillows under the client's knees (Choice B) is not a priority in skeletal traction. Adjusting the weights to alleviate discomfort (Choice C) should not be done without proper orders from the healthcare provider. Ensuring that the traction ropes are free of knots (Choice D) is important but ensuring the weights hang freely is the priority to maintain traction effectiveness.

A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and peripheral edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

  • A. Elevate the legs to reduce swelling.
  • B. Restrict fluids to reduce fluid overload.
  • C. Administer furosemide to reduce fluid overload.
  • D. Monitor the client's intake and output.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering a diuretic like furosemide is the priority intervention for a client with cirrhosis, ascites, and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps reduce fluid overload by promoting diuresis. Elevating the legs may provide some symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Restricting fluids is not appropriate initially as the client needs proper hydration while managing fluid balance. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the first action to address the immediate fluid overload in this client.

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